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  • [May 2018] Lead2pass Latest (ISC)2 CISSP Exam Questions Free Downloading 2873q

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    QUESTION 31
    Which of the following monitors network traffic in real time?

    A.    network-based IDS
    B.    host-based IDS
    C.    application-based IDS
    D.    firewall-based IDS

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    This type of IDS is called a network-based IDS because monitors network traffic in real time.

    QUESTION 32
    A host-based IDS is resident on which of the following?

    A.    On each of the critical hosts
    B.    decentralized hosts
    C.    central hosts
    D.    bastion hosts

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A host-based IDS is resident on a host and reviews the system and event logs in order to detect an attack on the host and to determine if the attack was successful. All critical serves should have a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) installed. As you are well aware, network based IDS cannot make sense or detect pattern of attacks within encrypted traffic. A HIDS might be able to detect such attack after the traffic has been decrypted on the host. This is why critical servers should have both NIDS and HIDS.

    FROM WIKIPEDIA:

    A HIDS will monitor all or part of the dynamic behavior and of the state of a computer system. Much as a NIDS will dynamically inspect network packets, a HIDS might detect which program accesses what resources and assure that (say) a word-processor hasn\’t suddenly and inexplicably started modifying the system password-database. Similarly a HIDS might look at the state of a system, its stored information, whether in RAM, in the file-system, or elsewhere; and check that the contents of these appear as expected.

    One can think of a HIDS as an agent that monitors whether anything/anyone – internal or external – has circumvented the security policy that the operating system tries to enforce. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Host-based_intrusion_detection_system

    QUESTION 33
    Which of the following usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources?

    A.    network-based IDS
    B.    host-based IDS
    C.    application-based IDS
    D.    firewall-based IDS

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A network-based IDS usually provides reliable, real-time information without consuming network or host resources.

    QUESTION 34
    The fact that a network-based IDS reviews packets payload and headers enable which of the following?

    A.    Detection of denial of service
    B.    Detection of all viruses
    C.    Detection of data corruption
    D.    Detection of all password guessing attacks

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Because a network-based IDS reviews packets and headers, denial of service attacks can also be detected.

    This question is an easy question if you go through the process of elimination. When you see an answer containing the keyword: ALL It is something a give away that it is not the proper answer. On the real exam you may encounter a few question where the use of the work ALL renders the choice invalid. Pay close attention to such keyword.

    The following are incorrect answers:

    Even though most IDSs can detect some viruses and some password guessing attacks, they cannot detect ALL viruses or ALL password guessing attacks. Therefore these two answers are only detractors.
    Unless the IDS knows the valid values for a certain dataset, it can NOT detect data corruption.

    QUESTION 35
    Which of the following reviews system and event logs to detect attacks on the host and determine if the attack was successful?

    A.    host-based IDS
    B.    firewall-based IDS
    C.    bastion-based IDS
    D.    server-based IDS

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A host-based IDS can review the system and event logs in order to detect an attack on the host and to determine if the attack was successful.

    QUESTION 36
    What would be considered the biggest drawback of Host-based Intrusion Detection systems (HIDS)?

    A.    It can be very invasive to the host operating system
    B.    Monitors all processes and activities on the host system only
    C.    Virtually eliminates limits associated with encryption
    D.    They have an increased level of visibility and control compared to NIDS

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The biggest drawback of HIDS, and the reason many organizations resist its use, is that it can be very invasive to the host operating system. HIDS must have the capability to monitor all processes and activities on the host system and this can sometimes interfere with normal system processing.

    HIDS versus NIDS

    A host-based IDS (HIDS) can be installed on individual workstations and/ or servers to watch for inappropriate or anomalous activity. HIDSs are usually used to make sure users do not delete system files, reconfigure important settings, or put the system at risk in any other way.

    So, whereas the NIDS understands and monitors the network traffic, a HIDS’s universe is limited to the computer itself. A HIDS does not understand or review network traffic, and a NIDS does not “look in” and monitor a system’s activity. Each has its own job and stays out of the other’s way.

    The ISC2 official study book defines an IDS as:
    An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a technology that alerts organizations to adverse or unwanted activity. An IDS can be implemented as part of a network device, such as a router, switch, or firewall, or it can be a dedicated IDS device monitoring traffic as it traverses the network. When used in this way, it is referred to as a network IDS, or NIDS. IDS can also be used on individual host systems to monitor and report on file, disk, and process activity on that host. When used in this way it is referred to as a host-based IDS, or HIDS.

    An IDS is informative by nature and provides real-time information when suspicious activities are identified. It is primarily a detective device and, acting in this traditional role, is not used to directly prevent the suspected attack.

    What about IPS?

    In contrast, an intrusion prevention system (IPS), is a technology that monitors activity like an IDS but will automatically take proactive preventative action if it detects unacceptable activity. An IPS permits a predetermined set of functions and actions to occur on a network or system; anything that is not permitted is considered unwanted activity and blocked. IPS is engineered specifically to respond in real time to an event at the system or network layer. By proactively enforcing policy, IPS can thwart not only attackers, but also authorized users attempting to perform an action that is not within policy. Fundamentally, IPS is considered an access control and policy enforcement technology, whereas IDS is considered network monitoring and audit technology.

    The following answers were incorrect:
    All of the other answer were advantages and not drawback of using HIDS

    TIP FOR THE EXAM:
    Be familiar with the differences that exists between an HIDS, NIDS, and IPS. Know that IDS’s are mostly detective but IPS are preventive. IPS’s are considered an access control and policy enforcement technology, whereas IDS’s are considered network monitoring and audit technology.

    QUESTION 37
    Attributes that characterize an attack are stored for reference using which of the following Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

    A.    signature-based IDS
    B.    statistical anomaly-based IDS
    C.    event-based IDS
    D.    inferent-based IDS

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 38
    Which of the following is an issue with signature-based intrusion detection systems?

    A.    Only previously identified attack signatures are detected.
    B.    Signature databases must be augmented with inferential elements.
    C.    It runs only on the windows operating system
    D.    Hackers can circumvent signature evaluations.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    An issue with signature-based ID is that only attack signatures that are stored in their database are detected.
    New attacks without a signature would not be reported. They do require constant updates in order to maintain their effectiveness.

    QUESTION 39
    Which of the following is an IDS that acquires data and defines a “normal” usage profile for the network or host?

    A.    Statistical Anomaly-Based ID
    B.    Signature-Based ID
    C.    dynamical anomaly-based ID
    D.    inferential anomaly-based ID

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Statistical Anomaly-Based ID – With this method, an IDS acquires data and defines a “normal” usage profile for the network or host that is being monitored.

    QUESTION 40
    Which of the following is most relevant to determining the maximum effective cost of access control?

    A.    the value of information that is protected.
    B.    management’s perceptions regarding data importance.
    C.    budget planning related to base versus incremental spending.
    D.    the cost to replace lost data.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The cost of access control must be commensurate with the value of the information that is being protected.

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    QUESTION 31
    The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a corporation decided to move all email to a cloud computing environment.
    The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) was told to research the risk involved in this environment.
    Which of the following measures should be implemented to minimize the risk of hosting email in the cloud?

    A.    Remind users that all emails with sensitive information need be encrypted and physically
    inspect the cloud computing.
    B.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and obtain an NDA and an SLA from the
    cloud provider.
    C.    Ensure logins are over an encrypted channel and remind users to encrypt all emails that
    contain sensitive information.
    D.    Obtain an NDA from the cloud provider and remind users that all emails with sensitive
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    QUESTION 31
    In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?

    A.    Full operational test
    B.    Walk-through test
    C.    Penetration test
    D.    Paper test

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 32
    Which of the following DITSCAP phases validates that the preceding work has produced an IS that operates in a specified computing environment?

    A.    Phase 4
    B.    Phase 3
    C.    Phase 2
    D.    Phase 1

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 33
    Which of the following techniques are used after a security breach and are intended to limit the extent of any damage caused by the incident?

    A.    Safeguards
    B.    Preventive controls
    C.    Detective controls
    D.    Corrective controls

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 34
    Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?

    A.    Chief Risk Officer
    B.    Data owner
    C.    Designated Approving Authority
    D.    Chief Information Officer

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 35
    In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?

    A.    Phase 2
    B.    Phase 3
    C.    Phase 1
    D.    Phase 4

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 36
    What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes created to the project scope?

    A.    Configuration Management System
    B.    Project Management InformationSystem
    C.    Scope Verification
    D.    Integrated Change Control

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 37
    A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it’ll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event?

    A.    Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart.
    B.    Add the identified risk to the risk register.
    C.    Add the identified risk to the issues log.
    D.    Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 38
    Which of the following concepts represent the three fundamental principles of information security?
    Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

    A.    Privacy
    B.    Integrity
    C.    Availability
    D.    Confidentiality

    Answer: BCD

    QUESTION 39
    Which of the following governance bodies provides management, operational and technical controls to satisfy security requirements?

    A.    Chief Information Security Officer
    B.    Senior Management
    C.    Information Security Steering Committee
    D.    Business Unit Manager

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 40
    Your organization has a project that is expected to last 20 months but the customer would really like the project completed in 18 months. You have worked on similar projects in the past and believe that you could fast track the project and reach the 18 month deadline. What increases when you fast track a project?

    A.    Risks
    B.    Costs
    C.    Resources
    D.    Communication

    Answer: A

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    QUESTION 71
    What is the function of Band Steering?

    A.    Balancing clients across APs on different channels within the same band
    B.    Encourages clients, 5GHz capable, to connect on the 5GHz spectrum
    C.    Coordinate access to the same channel across multiple APs
    D.    Enables selection of 20 vs. 40 MHz mode of operation per band
    E.    Enables acceptable coverage index on both the “b/g” and “a” spectrums (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    Which two options are reasons why we are seeing increasing levels of business-led change? (Choose two.)

    A.    Because IT solutions are going through a trend of decreasing costs.
    B.    Because business requirements are changing rapidly.
    C.    Because the technology led change is too expensive.
    D.    Because of the disruption created by the megatrends: cloud, mobility, big data, video. (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)

    A.    Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
    B.    Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
    C.    Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
    D.    Use the right verbal and corporate language.
    E.    Know your audience and what is of interest to them.

    Answer: ABE

    QUESTION 32
    Which option is the most effective way to use best practices or scenarios during the selling process?

    A.    in use cases that are relevant to the customer
    B.    in business cases used previously
    C.    in customer briefing documents
    D.    in customer benefits statements

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 33
    Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?

    A.    Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
    B.    Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
    C.    To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
    D.    Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 34
    Which option is the main element of a Business Outcomes storyline?

    A.    relevancy to customers’ strategy
    B.    Cisco differentiators
    C.    Cisco products
    D.    guaranteed customer ROI

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 35
    Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)

    A.    Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
    B.    Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
    C.    Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
    D.    Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.

    Answer: AC

    QUESTION 36
    You are working to understand a customer business environment. Which two options are preferred data gathering techniques? (Choose two.)

    A.    surveys
    B.    interviews
    C.    asking competitors
    D.    stock analysis reports
    E.    social media

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 37
    Which statement best describes the Cisco sales approach?

    A.    Understand the goals of the buyer.
    B.    Focus on Cisco technologies already in place.
    C.    Focus on fulfilling customer needs and help them generate value through stronger business outcomes.
    D.    Pay attention to details that the customer is sharing about their needs.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 38
    Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. What approach is frequently used to achieve business outcomes?

    A.    Using Next Generation IT to increase service quality. Also, reducing risk, complexity and costs
    B.    Refining, enriching or developing & enabling new business processes, new markets, and customer interactions
    C.    Taking advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
    D.    Improving agility & ability to create or deploy high quality, differentiated, innovative services for end users

    Answer: B

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    QUESTION 31
    Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, continues to interrogate the file and update its disposition over time, then records the pathway that the software and files take from device to device. This process is an example of which Cisco AMP feature?

    A.    file reputation
    B.    attack chain weaving
    C.    breach hunting
    D.    file sandboxing
    E.    machine learning

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 32
    How does the Device Trajectory feature work?

    A.    It searches for potential threats based on identified activities.
    B.    It tracks file behavior across the network to see which devices it enters and exits.
    C.    It analyzes the data from file and process retrospection to provide a new level of threat intelligence.
    D.    It isolates suspicious files and runs tests to determine their authenticity.
    E.    It tracks file behavior on a device to pinpoint the root cause of a compromise.

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 33
    Which Cisco Secure Access solution should you recommend to a customer who is experiencing access complications due to too many policies and too many user groups?

    A.    Cisco AnyConnect
    B.    Cisco TrustSec
    C.    Cisco ISE
    D.    Cisco AMP for Endpoints
    E.    Cisco site-to-site VPN
    F.    Cisco SIO

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 34
    Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?

    A.    Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality into one product.
    B.    Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.
    C.    Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced feature set.
    D.    Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway into one product.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 35
    Which two statements about the capabilities of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client for Windows are true? (Choose two.)

    A.    It supports always-on connectivity by automatically establishing a VPN connection as needed. If multiple VPN gateways exist, load sharing occurs in a Round-robin fashion.
    B.    It supports session persistence after hibernation or standby.
    C.    Trusted Network Detection allows the connection to be established without any user intervention (authentication), if the client is located inside the office.
    D.    It is exclusively configured by central policies; no local configuration is possible.
    E.    The order of policy enforcement is as follows: dynamic access policy, user attributes, tunnel group, group policy attributes.

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 36
    Which statement about wireless intrusion prevention and rogue access point detection is true?

    A.    A local mode access point provides power to wireless clients.
    B.    A monitor mode access point performs background scanning in order to detect rogue access points.
    C.    A monitor mode access point is dedicated to scanning (listen-only).
    D.    A monitor mode access point can distribute a white list of all known access points.
    E.    Any access point that broadcasts the same RF group name or is part of the same mobility group is considered to be a rogue access point.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 37
    Which Cisco technology solution can resolve a customer’s inability to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources, while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?

    A.    Cisco TrustSec
    B.    Cisco Data Center Management Policy Implementation
    C.    Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
    D.    Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
    E.    Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
    F.    Cisco Secure Data Center
    G.    Cisco Security Intelligence Operations

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 38
    Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content? (Choose two.)

    A.    URL filtering
    B.    retrospective security
    C.    attack chain weaving
    D.    breach hunting
    E.    trajectory
    F.    behavioral indications of compromise

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 39
    Which option best describes granular app control using application visibility and control?

    A.    blocking harmful sites based on content, such as pokerstars.com
    B.    blocking World of Warcraft but allowing Google+
    C.    blocking Facebook games but allowing Facebook posts
    D.    blocking Twitter to increase employee productivity

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 40
    The first phase of email security analyzes “who-what-where-when-how” information and context-based policies during which component of threat detection?

    A.    antivirus defense
    B.    advanced malware protection for email
    C.    outbreak filters
    D.    data loss prevention
    E.    encryption
    F.    antispam defense

    Answer: F

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    QUESTION 71
    Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

    A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
    B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
    C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
    D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

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    QUESTION 31
    Your customer wants to configure LSCs and asks for specific information about which number to configure in the text box right next to the “Number of Attempts”. Which statement is true?

    A.    The default number of attempts is 100.
    B.    A value of 2 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC, the AP attempts to Join the Cisco WLC using the default certificate
    C.    A value of 255 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC,the AP does not attempt to join the Cisco WLC using the default .
    D.    A value of 3 means that if a user fails to authenticate,the user is disconnected after three retries. (more…)

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    QUESTION 41
    Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing loT capabities? (Choose three.)

    A.    Layered Security Appoach.
    B.    Place security above functionality.
    C.    Define lifecycle controls for loT devices.
    D.    Privacy impact Assessment.
    E.    Change passwords every 90 days.
    F.    Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on loT devices.

    Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 42
    Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

    A.    offset-list
    B.    neighbor
    C.    address-family
    D.    stub

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 43
    Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

    431

    A.    broadcast
    B.    Ethernet
    C.    multipoint
    D.    point-to-point

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 44
    Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?

    A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service.
    B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
    C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software applications.
    D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 45
    Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?

    A.    It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
    B.    It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
    C.    It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
    D.    It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 46
    What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?

    A.    255
    B.    64
    C.    10
    D.    128

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 47
    Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature? (Choose two.)

    A.    the capture rate
    B.    the capture point
    C.    the capture buffer
    D.    the buffer memory size
    E.    the capture filter
    F.    the capture file export location

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 48
    When you configure an IPv6 IPsec tunnel, which two fields can represent the ISAKMP identity of a peer? (Choose two)

    A.    Authentication method
    B.    DH group identifier
    C.    Hostname
    D.    IPv6 address
    E.    Encryption algorithm

    Answer: CD

    QUESTION 49
    Which action enables passive interfaces in RIPv6(RIPng)?

    A.    Use “passive-interface default” under the routing process.
    B.    Enable passive-interface on interface configuration.
    C.    passive interface are not supported in RIPng.
    D.    Enable passive-interface for each interface under the routing process.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 50
    Which statement is true about IGMP?

    A.    Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
    B.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages to the RP.
    C.    IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
    D.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast groups.

    Answer: D

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    QUESTION 41
    Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)

    A.    The ephone hunt group is mandatory.
    B.    Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable.
    C.    Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones.
    D.    Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones.
    E.    Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones.
    F.    The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential.

    Answer: AC
    Explanation:
    The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone
    http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.html

    QUESTION 42
    Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?

    A.    sequential
    B.    peer
    C.    longest idle
    D.    parallel
    E.    overlay

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group:
    Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group
    Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group
    Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk
    Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32

    QUESTION 43
    Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?

    A.    o
    B.    c
    C.    w
    D.    x
    E.    :

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.

    QUESTION 44
    Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)

    A.    It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
    B.    Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
    C.    It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
    D.    Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
    E.    It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
    F.    The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 45
    Refer to the exhibit. From this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router, how many bearer channels are available to carry voice traffic?

    451

    A.    91
    B.    92
    C.    93
    D.    94
    E.    95

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    In NFAS one channel is used for signaling so according to this we will have 94 channel for with bearer capability.

    QUESTION 46
    Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command?

    461

    A.    MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
    B.    TEI_ASSIGNED
    C.    AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT
    D.    STANDBY
    E.    INITIALIZED

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.

    QUESTION 47
    Refer to the exhibit. In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it?

    471

    A.    FXS
    B.    E&M
    C.    BRI
    D.    FXO
    E.    DID

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 48
    The iLBC codec operates at 38 bytes per sample per 20-millisecond interval. What is its codec bit rate in kilobits per second?

    A.    6.3
    B.    13.3
    C.    15.2
    D.    16
    E.    24

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    The internet Low Bit Rate Codec (iLBC) is designed for narrow band speech and results in a payload bit rate of 13.33 kbits per second for 30-millisecond (ms) frames and 15.20 kbits per second for 20 ms frames. When the codec operates at block lengths of 20 ms, it produces 304 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952. Similarly, for block lengths of 30 ms it produces 400 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952.The iLBC has built-in error correction functionality to provide better performance in networks with higher packet loss

    QUESTION 49
    Assume 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and a 40-millisecond voice payload, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for five VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link?

    A.    87 kb/s
    B.    134 kb/s
    C.    102.6 kb/s
    D.    77.6 kb/s
    E.    71.3 kb/s

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

    QUESTION 50
    Assume 20 bytes of voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for six VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?

    A.    80.4 kb/s
    B.    91.2 kb/s
    C.    78.4 kb/s
    D.    69.6 kb/s
    E.    62.4 kb/s

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

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    QUESTION 31
    Refer to the exhibit. Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why?

    311

    A.    CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2.
    B.    CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP.
    C.    CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1.
    D.    CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 32
    A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.)

    A.    MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the
    backbone.
    B.    MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths.
    C.    MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network.
    D.    MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation.
    E.    MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.

    Answer: BE

    QUESTION 33
    Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.)

    A.    BFD
    B.    fast hello packets
    C.    UDLD
    D.    IP Cisco Express Forwarding

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 34
    In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)

    A.    reduces processing load
    B.    provides sub-second convergence
    C.    improves network stability
    D.    prevents routing loops
    E.    quickly detects network failures

    Answer: AC

    QUESTION 35
    You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?

    A.    Incremental Shortest Path First
    B.    Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
    C.    Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
    D.    partial route calculation
    E.    Fast-Flooding

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 36
    You are hired to design a solution that will improve network availability for users on a campus network with routed access. If the budget limits you to three components, which three components would you recommend in your design proposal? (Choose three.)

    A.    redundant power supplies in the access routers
    B.    standby route processors for SSO in the core routers
    C.    standby route processors for SSO in the distribution routers
    D.    standby route processors for SSO in the access routers
    E.    replace copper links between devices with fiber links

    Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 37
    You are designing a network to support data, voice and video. Which two main factors will you address to improve network convergence? (Choose two.)

    A.    event propagation delay
    B.    failure detection delay
    C.    forwarding engine update delay
    D.    routing table recalculation delay

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 38
    Refer to the exhibit. This diagram depicts the design of a small network that will run EIGRP on R1 and R2, and EIGRP Stub on R3. In which two ways will this network be impacted if there is link instability between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)

    381

    A.    R1 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R2 and R3.
    B.    R3 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R2.
    C.    R2 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R3.
    D.    R3 will be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
    E.    R3 will not be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.

    Answer: BE

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    QUESTION 41
    Which type of antenna is used in wireless communication?

    A.    Omnidirectional
    B.    Parabolic
    C.    Uni-directional
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    QUESTION 31
    Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?

    A.    show ap config general Cisco_AP
    B.    show wlan wlan_id
    C.    show flexconnect summary
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    QUESTION 31
    After the completion of a site survey with Ekahau Site Survey tool, using the default color palette, it is noted that multiple areas are shown as white on the heat map when viewing 5 GHz signal strength data. What does this indicate about the signal strength?

    A.    The area is below the minimum threshold configured on the tool.
    B.    The area is below the detectable level and indicates no RF signal.
    C.    The area is below -100 dBm at coverage cell edge.
    D.    The area is below -67 dBm at coverage cell edge.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 32
    An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to when determining where APs can be installed?

    A.    Local or National Building Code
    B.    IEEE
    C.    BICSI TDMM
    D.    Cisco Hardware Installation Guide

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 33
    An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?

    A.    overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points
    B.    overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
    C.    continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
    D.    continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 34
    A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

    A.    Use APs with external antennas.
    B.    Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.
    C.    Use APs with built-in antennas.
    D.    Use a battery pack to power APs.
    E.    Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.
    F.    Use APs with directional antennas.

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 35
    An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation.
    What is the coverage area from the AP if the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration?

    A.    225 feet
    B.    80 feet
    C.    150 feet
    D.    100 feet

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 36
    Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)

    A.    Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
    B.    Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
    C.    Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installation is complete.
    D.    Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems.
    E.    Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.

    Answer: BE

    QUESTION 37
    A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a floor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices. Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new floor?

    A.    Data Coverage Support Margin
    B.    Demand Settings
    C.    Add AP Field
    D.    802.11n Protocol Support

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/prime_infrastructure/1-2/configuration/guide/pi_12_cg/maps.html#pgfId-1671104

    QUESTION 38
    What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?

    A.    11 Mb/s
    B.    36 Mb/s
    C.    12 Mb/s
    D.    18 Mb/s

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 39
    An engineer is conducting a location readiness test and wants a selected point to be considered location-ready. Which three possible configurations reflect the minimum number of APs needed? (Choose three.)

    A.    One AP is resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-question.
    B.    One AP per 1400 sq. ft. on the map.
    C.    Two APs are resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in- question.
    D.    Four APs are deployed on the floor.
    E.    Three APs are within 70 feet (21 meters) of the point-in- question
    F.    Three APs are deployed on the floor.

    Answer: ADE
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/CMX/CMX_LocFund.pdf

    QUESTION 40
    A network engineer is configuring QoS with a DSCP value of 46. To which queue must the CoS be mapped for priority queuing of the voice frames?

    A.    1
    B.    2
    C.    5
    D.    4
    E.    3

    Answer: C

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    QUESTION 51
    Which IPS signature regular expression CLI command matches a host issuing a domain lookup for www.theblock.com?

    A.    regex-string (\x03[Tt][Hh][Ee]\x05[Bb][Ll][Oo][Cc][Kk])
    B.    regex-string (\x0b[theblock.com])
    C.    regex-string (\x03[the]\x05[block]0x3[com])
    D.    regex-string (\x03[T][H][E]\x05[B][L][O][C][K]\x03[.][C][O][M] (more…)

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