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    A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
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    QUESTION 1
    Given:

    11

    Which option enables the code to compile?

    12

    A.    Option A
    B.    Option B
    C.    Option C
    D.    Option D

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 2
    Given the code fragment:

    21

    What is the result?

    A.    [Robb, Rick, Bran]
    B.    [Robb, Rick]
    C.    [Robb, Bran, Rick, Bran]
    D.    An exception is thrown at runtime.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    After adding elements to names we have a list with four elements and element “Bran” repeated.
    After removing element “Bran” we have a list with three elements [Robb, Rick, Bran].
    remove method removes the first occurrence of the specified element from this list, if it is present. If the list does not contain the element, it is unchanged.
    https://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/api/java/util/ArrayList.html#remove-java.lang.Object-

    QUESTION 3
    Given:

    31

    What is the result?

    A.    C B A
    B.    C
    C.    A B C
    D.    Compilation fails at line n1 and line n2

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 4
    Given:

    41

    What is the result?

    A.    3 4 5 6
    B.    3 4 3 6
    C.    5 4 5 6
    D.    3 6 4 6

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Since variable i is static, it is shared by all instances of X. When code executes x2.i = 5, x1.i = 5 too.
    Since variable j isn’t static, each instance of X has its own copy of j.

    QUESTION 5
    Given the code fragment:

    51

    Which code fragment, when inserted at line 3, enables the code to print 10:20?

    A.    int[] array = new int[2];
    B.    int[] array;
    array = int[2];
    C.    int array = new int[2];
    D.    int array [2] ;

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 6
    Given the code fragment:

    61

    What is the result?

    A.    A B C Work done
    B.    A B C D Work done
    C.    A Work done
    D.    Compilation fails

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 7
    Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism?

    A.    Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
    B.    Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
    C.    Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
    D.    Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
    E.    Allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being created

    Answer: ACE
    Explanation:
    B is false. Standard exceptions not cover all possible errors.
    D is false. Exceptions don’t have to be handled in the method in which they occurred.

    QUESTION 8
    Given the code from the Greeting.Java file:

    81

    Which set of commands prints Hello Duke in the console?

    82

    A.    Option A
    B.    Option B
    C.    Option C
    D.    Option D

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Source code file names must have .java suffixes to compile with javac
    We interpret or run the program with “java <class name without suffix> arguments”
    http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/javac.html
    http://docs.oracle.com/javase/8/docs/technotes/tools/windows/java.html

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    QUESTION 1
    Which three statements are true regarding Flex ASM on a four-node cluster consisting of three-hub nodes and a leaf node?

    A.    An ASM instance and database instances can coexist on the same hub node.
    B.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any leaf node.
    C.    A database instance on a hub node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
    D.    A database instance on a leaf node can be a client of an ASM instance running on any hub node.
    E.    A database instance on a hub node uses an ASM instance as an I/O server when requesting I/O todiskgroups.
    F.    ASM Cluster File System (ASFS) can only be deployed on hub nodes.

    Answer: ACF
    Explanation:
    Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD). However application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
    Note:
    Hub Nodes are connected among them via private network and have direct access to the shared storage just like previous versions. These nodes are the ones that access the Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD) directly.
    Leaf Nodes are lighter and are not connected among them, neither accesses the shared storage like the Hub Nodes. Each Leaf Node communicates with the Hub Node that is attached to, and it is connected to the cluster via the Hub Node that is linked to.
    http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

    QUESTION 2
    Which two statements are true about initialization parameters for Clustered ASM instances?

    A.    A change to ASM_DISKSTRING requires a restart of all ASM instances for the change to take effect.
    B.    ASM_POWER_LIMIT controls he number of RDBMS instances that can access a disk group while it isbeing rebalanced.
    C.    The ASM_DISKGROUP parameter is optional.
    D.    The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is ASM.
    E.    The maximum value of ASM_POWER_LIMIT is 1024.

    Answer: CE
    Explanation:
    C: The default value of the ASM_DISKGROUPS parameter is a NULL string. If the parameter value is NULL or is not specified, then ASM does not mount any disk groups.
    E: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
    Incorrect Answers:
    B: The ASM_POWER_LIMIT initialization parameter specifies the default power for disk rebalancing in a disk group. The range of values is 0 to 1024.
    D: The default value of INSTANT_TYPE is RDBMS.
    https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asminst.htm#BHCEHJGA

    QUESTION 3
    Which three statements are true concerning diagnostic components and requirements of Oracle 12c Clusterware?

    A.    There is one ologgered service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
    B.    The Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database must run on a hub node if Flex Clusters areused.
    C.    There is one osysmond service for the cluster health monitor (CHM) on each cluster node regardless ofcluster size.
    D.    The oclumon utility may be used to get and set parameters for the cluster health monitor (CHM) repository.
    E.    The diagcollection.pl script must be run from the Grid home directory as the Grid infrastructure owner.
    F.    The clusterware log files are stored inside the Grid Infrastructure Management Repository database usedby the cluster health monitor (CHM).

    Answer: BCD
    Explanation:
    B: The Oracle Grid Infrastructure Management Repository Runs on one node in the cluster.This must be a Hub Node in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration.
    C: There is one system monitor service on every node. The system monitor service (osysmond) is a real-time, monitoring and operating system metric collection service that sends the data to the cluster logger service.
    D: Use the oclumon manage command to view and change configuration information from the system monitor service.
    Syntax
       oclumon manage -repos {{changeretentiontime time} | {changerepossize
       memory_size}} | -get {key1 [key2 …] | alllogger [-details] | mylogger [-details]}
    Where changerepossize memory_size: Use this option to change the CHM repository space limit to a specified number of MB.
    Note: The OCLUMON command-line tool is included with CHM and you can use it to query the CHM repository to display node-specific metrics for a specified time period. You can also use OCLUMON to perform miscellaneous administrative tasks, such as changing the debug levels, querying the version of CHM, and changing the metrics database size.
    Incorrect Answers:
    E: You can collect CHM data from any node in the cluster by running the Grid_home/bin/diagcollection.pl script on the node.
    https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/troubleshoot.htm#CHDIGCEC

    QUESTION 4
    PROD1, PROD2 and PROD3 are three active instances of the PROD database.
    Examine these commands executed on PROD1:

    SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=200 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’*’; SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS=100 SCOPE=MEMORY sid=’PROD1′;

    Which statement is true?

    A.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for all instances of PROD.
    B.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 100 for all instances of PROD.
    C.    The second statement returns an error because this parameter must be identical for all isntances.
    D.    PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS will be 200 for PROD2 and PROD3 and 100 for PROD1.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    First SET PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS is set to 200 for all instances, then it is set to 100 for PROD1.

    QUESTION 5
    Which three events occur when a hub node fails in an Oracle Clusterware 12c Flex Cluster?

    A.    The hub node is evicted from the cluster
    B.    Leaf nodes connected to the failing hub node are reconnected to a surviving hub node without servicedisruption.
    C.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving hub nodes.
    D.    Cluster resources running on leaf nodes connected to the failed hub node are relocated to one or moresurviving leaf nodes.
    E.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes.
    F.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving leaf nodes.
    G.    Cluster resources running on the failed hub node are relocated to one or more surviving hub nodes or leafnodes, or both.

    Answer: ABE
    Explanation:
    Incorrect Answers:
    F, G: Leaf Nodes are different from standard Oracle Grid Infrastructure nodes, in that they do not require direct access to shared storage, but instead request data through Hub Nodes. Hub Nodes can run in an Oracle Flex Cluster configuration without having any Leaf Nodes as cluster member nodes, but Leaf Nodes must be members of a cluster that includes at least one Hub Node.
    https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/bigcluster.htm#CWADD92409

    QUESTION 6
    Which two statements are true about Flex ASM in a Flex Cluster?

    A.    Oracle databases from releases older than 12c cannot use Flex ASM.
    B.    ASFS may only be configured on a hub node running an ASM instance.
    C.    Instances of ASM-based databases on hosts that have no ASM instance running, require Flex ASM.
    D.    Flex ASM requires that I/Os requests be sent through an ASM Proxy Instance, regardless of database andASM instance placement in a cluster.
    E.    Hub nodes with connections from multiple leaf nodes must run an ASM instance.

    Answer: BE
    Explanation:
    B: Oracle Automatic Storage Management Cluster File System (Oracle ACFS) can only be run on the hub nodes, not the leaf nodes. Architecturally Oracle Flex Cluster comprises of a Hub and Leaf architecture where in only the Hub nodes will only have direct access to Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) and Voting Disk (VD).
    E: application can access the database via Leaf nodes without ASM instance NOT running on Leaf nodes. The connection to the database is through Hub making it transparent for the application.
    Incorrect Answers:
    A: The Oracle Flex ASM can be implemented in two ways:
    Pure 12c Flex ASM (Same Version)
    Both Grid Infrastructure (GI) and Database running on Oracle 12c
    Pre Oracle 12c Mixed (Different Versions)
    As normal ASM instance will run on each node with Flex configuration to support pre 12c database. The compatibility parameter of ASM disk group is used to manage the compatibility of between and among database instances. Advantage of this approach is that if an Oracle 12c database instance loses connectivity with an ASM instance, then the database connections will failover to another ASM instance on a different server. This failover is achieved by setting the cardinality to all.
    http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/articles/database/flexasm-flexcluster-benefits-odb12c-2177371.html

    QUESTION 7
    Which three statements are true about the cluster file system archiving scheme?

    A.    Each node can read only the archived logs written by itself.
    B.    Nodes don’t use network to archive files.
    C.    Each node can read the archive redo log files of the other nodes.
    D.    Each node archives to a uniquely named local directory.
    E.    Each node archives to a local directory with the same path on each cluster node.
    F.    Each node writes to a single location on the cluster file system while archiving the redo log files.

    Answer: BCF
    Explanation:
    Initialization Parameter Settings for the Cluster File System Archiving Scheme
    In the cluster file system scheme, each node archives to a directory that is identified with the same name on all instances within the cluster database (/arc_dest, in the following example). To configure this directory, set values for the LOG_ARCH_DEST_1 parameter, as shown in the following example:
    https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/RACAD/rman.htm#RACAD320

    QUESTION 8
    Which three statements are true regarding multitenant architecture for RAC databases?

    A.    One UNDO tablespace for each PDB is required.
    B.    One UNDO tablespace for each instance is required.
    C.    PDBs can have local temporary tablespaces.
    D.    All the containers share the same SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces.
    E.    You can open one, several, or all PDBs on one, several, or all CDB instances.

    Answer: BCE
    Explanation:
    B: For an Oracle RAC CDB, one active undo tablespace exists for each instance.
    C: From a physical perspective, a CDB has basically the same structure as a non-CDB, except that each PDB has its own set of tablespaces (including its own SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces) and data files.
    https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/cdblogic.htm#CNCPT89268

    QUESTION 9
    Which two statements are true about ASM alias names?

    A.    ASM files created using an alias name are not OMF files even if OMF is enabled.
    B.    Alias file names cannot be used together with templates when creating tablespaces.
    C.    ASM files created using an alias name are OMF files even if OMF is not enabled.
    D.    Alias names can be stored only in user-defined directories.
    E.    ASM files created using an alias name also have a fully qualified name and can be accessed by eithername.

    Answer: AE

    QUESTION 10
    Which three statements are true concerning activation of a user-defined policy in Oracle 12c Clusterware?

    A.    When a policy is first created, it is initially active.
    B.    When a policy is activated, nodes may be reassigned to server pools based on the policy definition.
    C.    An administrator-defined policy may be activated using the srvctl utility.
    D.    When a policy is activated, resources cannot be automatically started to comply with the policy definition.
    E.    When a policy is first created, it is initially inactive.
    F.    When a policy is activated, resources can be automatically stopped to comply with the policy definition.

    Answer: BCE
    Explanation:
    BE: You can activate policies when necessary, prompting Oracle Clusterware to reconfigure a server pool according to each policy’s configuration.
    C: The following command activates the DayTime policy:
      $ crsctl modify policyset -attr “LAST_ACTIVATED_POLICY=DayTime”
    https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CWADD/pbmgmt.htm#CWADD92594

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    QUESTION 31
    Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

    A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
    B.    Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
    C.    Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
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    QUESTION 21
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    B.    VLAN management
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    QUESTION 21
    Because your project is slated to last five years, you believe rolling wave planning is appropriate. It provides information about the work to be done______________.

    A.    Throughout all project phases
    B.    For successful completion of the current project phase
    C.    For successful completion of the current and subsequent project phases
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    B.    A document sent to potential vendors to request information for skills and experience for a project
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    QUESTION 21
    You are a developer for an Independent Software Vendor (ISV).

    You need to create new extended data types in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.

    What are two best practices for extending a series of data types?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

    A.    An EDT should be created for each atomic entity being utilized.
    B.    Subtypes are not required for EDTs that do not contain any property changes.
    C.    You cannot extend the recID or tableID system data types.
    D.    You cannot use EDTs if one of them is a member of the parent extended data.

    Answer: AB
    Explanation:
    Whenever possible, you will want to use EDTs and EDTs should be created for each atomic entity in thesituation that your application is modeling.You should only create subtypes when they are needed. In other words, when you are creating an EDTthat extends another EDT, but you aren’t changing any of its properties, you probably do not need tocreate a new subtype.

    QUESTION 22
    You are installing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail at a store location.

    You want to share a drawer between point-of-sale (POS) clients.

    To achieve this goal, which component should you install on the computer connected to the cash drawer?

    A.    Hardware Station
    B.    Cloud POS
    C.    Commerce Runtime (CRT)
    D.    Retail Server

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Retail hardware station provides services that enable retail POS clients and peripherals such as printers, cash drawers, and payment devices to communicate with retail server.

    QUESTION 23
    You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail environment.

    You are preparing to deploy packages.
    Which two types of items can you deploy as a package? Each correct answer presents a completesolution.

    A.    a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtime components
    B.    an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package
    C.    a Microsoft Dynamics 365 Language Pack
    D.    a Retail Software Development Kit (SDK)

    Answer: AB
    Explanation:
    A deployable package is a unit of deployment that can be applied in any Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retailenvironment. A deployable package can be a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtimecomponents, an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package, or a new Microsoft Dynamics365 for Retail customization/application module package.

    QUESTION 24
    You are adding a relationship to a table.

    Which two best practices should you follow? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Define a navigational relationship; the validate property on the relation should be set to “Yes” for easier navigation.
    B.    Set the validate property to No when you are using navigational relationships so that the application is easy to navigate.
    C.    Name the relationship with an “_rel” suffix in order to differentiate it from the index that is appended with”_idx”.
    D.    Define the relationship to a foreign key on the child table by setting the validate property on the relation to Yes.

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 25
    What are two benefits of applying a form pattern to a form? Each correct answer presents part of thesolution.

    A.    ensures data consistency by enforcing common relationship patterns between datasources
    B.    provides default values for many properties on controls
    C.    enforces a consistent style so that the forms a user encounters are immediately recognizable
    D.    allows a developer to create many delivered forms from a base form

    Answer: BC
    Explanation:
    Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Enterprise Edition, makes development easier byproviding a guided experience for applying patterns to forms to ensure they are correct and consistent.
    They help validate forms and control structures and the use of controls incertain places. Using patternsalso ensures that each new form encountered by a user is immediatelyrecognizable in appearance andfunction. Form patterns can provide many default control properties, which leads to a more guideddevelopment experience.

    QUESTION 26
    You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer and are reviewinganother developer’s changesto a project.

    You run the Best Practices Fixer on the project. The following error message appears in the error list in Visual Studio for the display menu item XYZ:

    BP Rule: [BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege]:Path: [dynamics://MenuItemDisplay/
    XYZ]:BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: ‘AxMenuItemDisplay’ ‘XYZ’ is not covered by privilege: XYZ
    (USR) [YourModule]

    Based on this error message, which recommendation should you make to the developer?

    A.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of a new or existing Security Privilege in the Your Module model.
    B.    Set the Create Permissions and Delete Permissions properties on the XYZ display menu item.
    C.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of an extension of an existing Security Privilege in the Application Suite model.
    D.    Set the Linked Permission Type property to Form, and the Linked Permission Object property to thename of the form on the XYZ display menu item.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: Only the system administrator role can access this form

    QUESTION 27
    You are working in a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment that has an existingform named ModifyData and a display menu item named ModifyData1, which opens ModifyData. Youcreate a second menu item named ModifyData2 that also opens ModifyData.

    Aprivilegenamed ModifyData1View has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point with Read access.

    There is also a privilege named ModifyData1Maintain that has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point, with the Access Level property set to Delete. You create a new privilege named ModifyData2View and add the ModifyData2 menu item as an entry point. You set the Access Level property to Read on the ModifyData2 entry point.

    You need to create a new duty named DataManager so that a role with this duty can delete data from ModifyData when accessed through ModifyData1 and read data on the ModifyData form when accessedthrough ModifyData2.

    What should you do to achieve this goal?

    A.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
    B.    Grant the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
    C.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege to the DataManager duty.
    D.    Grant the ModifyData1View privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 28
    Which of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations application stack provides financial and human resources management functionality?

    A.    Application Suite
    B.    Application Object
    C.    Application Foundation
    D.    Application Platform

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Most of the functionality we associate with Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations is added in the Application Suite. Specific examples include the financial management, inventory or warehouse management, human resources management or the fleet management scenario.

    QUESTION 29
    You are creating a custom lookup form to look up records in a table.

    You want to provide multiple views of the table on the form.

    Which form pattern should you apply?

    A.    Details Master with Standard Tabs
    B.    Simple List
    C.    Lookup with Tabs
    D.    Dialog – Advanced Selection

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Lookup basic?This is the basic Lookup pattern that has just one list or tree, and also optional customfilters and actions.
    Lookup w/tabs?This Lookup pattern is used when more than oneview of the lookup can be madeavailable to the user. Tab captions aren’t shown. Instead, the tab is selected through a combo box.
    Lookup w/preview?This more advanced Lookup pattern enables a preview of the current record in thelookup grid.

    QUESTION 30
    You are writing a method to update the Customer reference field on a Sales order table record. You begin by writing the following code:

    class ExampleClass
    {
    /// <summary>
    /// Update the Customer reference field on the Sales orders table.
    /// </summary>
    /// <param name = “_salesId”>
    /// Sales order to update
    /// </param>
    /// <param name = “_customerRef”>
    /// Updated Customer reference value
    /// </param>
    public static void updateSalesTableCustomerReference(SalesId _salesId,
    CustRef _customerRef)
    {
    SalesTable salesTable;
    }
    }

    Which statement will complete the method?

    A.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId);
    salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
    salesTable.update();
    B.    update_recordset salesTable
    setting CustomerRef=_customerRef
    where salesTable.salesid==_salesId;
    C.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId, true); salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
    salesTable.update();
    D.    update_recordset salesTable
    setting SalesId = _salesId
    where salesTable.CustomerRef == _customerRef;

    Answer: C

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    QUESTION 21
    You are processing a customer payment and want to generate a payment line based on due date so that you can search the invoice lines that meet selected search criteria.
    What should you do?

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    B.    Use payment transfer.
    C.    Use Manual Payment Journal
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    QUESTION 21
    You are an accounts receivable manager.
    You company wants its top 10customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduce price.
    You need to establish a price.
    Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
    B.    Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
    C.    Set up a price/discount journal.
    D.    Set up a Price/Discount group for the 10 customers. (more…)

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    Which policy statement will be applied to neighbor 172.16.4.2?

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    What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

    A.    False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
    B.    False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
    C.    Crossover Error Rate (CER)
    D.    True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

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    QUESTION 21
    A company is developing a new web application for its Internet users and is following a secure coding methodology.
    Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

    A.    Conduct web server load tests.
    B.    Conduct static code analysis.
    C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
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    QUESTION 21
    Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?

    A.    Access control entry (ACE)
    B.    Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
    C.    Access control list (ACL)
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