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Monthly Archives: March 2018

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    QUESTION 266
    You are the system administrator for a company. All devices run Windows 10 and use a variety of Microsoft Store for Business apps. All user reports issues updating a Windows Store app.

    You need to troubleshoot the issue.

    Winch three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

    NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

    A.    Run the SFC command.
    B.    Run the repair-bde command.
    C.    Run the net start wuauserv command.
    D.    Run the Windows App Troubleshooter.
    E.    Use the Programs and Features Control Panel applet to repair the application. (more…)

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    QUESTION 255
    Your company uses Microsoft Office 365.

    You need to ensure that users are prompted to label and classify documents while they edit documents.

    Solution: You create a Microsoft Intune mobile device management (MDM) policy for mobile devices.

    Does the solution meet the goal?

    A.    Yes
    B.    No

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    QUESTION 211
    RMAN is configured to create backupset backups for your database.
    You issue the command to back up the database:

    RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG DELETE INPUT;

    Which two statements are true about the backup performed by the command?

    A.    Only the used blocks in the data files are backed up.
    B.    It backs up all the data files and deletes obsolete backups after the backup is complete.
    C.    It backs up only those archived log files that are not backed up at least once.
    D.    It backs up all the archived log files and deletes the ones that were just backed up.
    E.    It backs up all archived redo log files and online log files and deletes the archived log files after the backup is complete.

    Answer: BD
    Explanation:
    You can use BACKUP … DELETE to back up archived redo logs, data file copies, or backup sets and then delete the input files after successfully backing them up.
    The BACKUP ARCHIVELOG … DELETE INPUT command deletes archived log files after they are backed up. This command eliminates the separate step of manually deleting archived redo logs.

    QUESTION 212
    Your database instance is abnormally terminated because of a power outage. At the next startup, from which point in the redo log does the recovery start?

    A.    from the last complete checkpoint position
    B.    from the beginning of the current redo log file until the instance failure
    C.    from the last committed transaction
    D.    from the beginning of the current redo log file to the checkpoint position
    E.    from the most recent incremental checkpoint

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Have a recovery time governed by the number of terminated instances, amount of redo generated in each terminated redo thread since the last checkpoint, and by user-configurable factors such as the number and size of redo log files, checkpoint frequency, and the parallel recovery setting Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/startup.htm#CNCPT005

    QUESTION 213
    Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You use RMAN to take image copies and you update these copies incrementally every six hours. After a regular maintenance task, when you attempt to restart the instance, it halts in MOUNT state with an error indicating that one of the data files belonging to the EXAMPLE tablespace is lost.

    You want to recover the data file as quickly as possible while maximizing availability for the database.

    Examine the possible steps involved in the recovery process:

    1. Mount the database.
    2. Take the data file offline.
    3. Bring the tablespace online.
    4. Use the RMAN SWITCH command to switch to the image copy.
    5. Recover the tablespace.
    6. Open the database.
    7. Use the RMAN RESTORE command to switch to the image copy.

    Identify the correct sequence of the required steps.

    A.    2, 6, 4, 5, 3
    B.    2, 4, 5, 3, 6
    C.    1, 2, 4, 6, 3
    D.    1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6
    E.    2, 7, 5, 3

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 214
    Examine the statements that use flashback technologies:

    1. FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP (`2013-02-04 09:30:00′, `YYYY- MM-DD HH:MI:SS’);
    2. SELECT * FROM customers AS OF SCN 123456;
    3. FLASHBACK TABLE customers TO BEFORE DROP;
    4. FLASHBACK DATABASE TO TIMESTAMP TO_TIMESTAMP (`2013-02-04 09:30:00′, `YYYY-MM-DD
    HH:MI:SS’);
    5. SELECT * FROM customers VERSIONS BETWEEM SCN 123456 AND 123999;
    6. ALTER TABLE customer FLASHBACK ARCHIVE;

    Which set of statements depends on the availability of relevant undo data in the undo tablespace?

    A.    1,2,5
    B.    1,3,6
    C.    2,3,5,6
    D.    3,4,5

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 215
    Which two statements are true about RMAN duplexed backups?

    A.    It is only supported for backups to tape via media management interface.
    B.    It is not supported for image copies.
    C.    For performing duplexed backups, the parallelism for the device must be set equal to the number of copies.
    D.    Duplex backups can be performed on either disk or media, but cannot be performed on media and disk simultaneously.
    E.    Duplex backups can contain only data files and control files.

    Answer: DE

    QUESTION 216
    You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database to an Oracle 12c database.

    Examine the list of steps that might be used to accomplish this task:

    1. Place all user-defined tablespaces in read-only mode on the source database.
    2. Use the RMAN convert command to convert data files to the target platform’s endian format, if required.
    3. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the parameters VERSI0N=12, TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS, and FULL=Y.
    4. Transport the data files for all the user-defined tablespaces.
    5. Transport the export dump file to the target database.
    6. Perform an import on the target database by using the full, network_link, and transportable_datafiles parameters.
    7. Perform an import on the target database by using the full and transportable_datafiles parameters.

    Identify the required steps in the correct order.

    A.    1, 3, 5, 4, 2, and 7
    B.    1, 2, 4, 6, 5, 3, and 7
    C.    1, 2,4, and 7
    D.    2, 4, 5, 6, and 7

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 217
    You enable Flashback Data Archive for a table for which you want to track and save all transactions for four years. After some time, the requirement changes for keeping transactions from four to two years.

    You execute the following command to change the requirement:
    SQL> ALTER flashback archive fda1 MODIFY RETENSION 2 YEAR; What is the outcome?

    A.    An error is returned because the retention period cannot be reduced.
    B.    All historical data older than two years, if any, is purged from the flashback archive FDA1.
    C.    All the flashback data archives are purged and the subsequently created flashback archives are maintained for two years.
    D.    All historical data older than two years, if any, is archived to flashback logs and the flashback archive is set to new retention time.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 218
    Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) workload and it needs to be up 24 x 7. You want to perform a complete database backup by using RMAN.

    Identify the minimum requirement for accomplishing the task.

    A.    An RMAN channel must be configured to device-type disk.
    B.    The database must be configured in ARCHIVELOG mode.
    C.    Redo log groups must have at least two members each.
    D.    All tablespaces in the database must be locally managed.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 219
    You are administering a multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 with two pluggable databases (PDBs), PDB1 and PDB2. You execute the following commands on CBD$ROOT as the SYS user:

    SQL> CREATE USER c##scott IDENTIFIED BY scottorcll;
    SQL> GRANT CREATE SESSION TO c##scott user?

    Which statement is true about the c##scott user?

    A.    It is created in all the PDBs with the CREATE SESSION privilege.
    B.    It is created in all the PDBs but has the CREATE SESSION privilege only in CDB$ROOT.
    C.    It is created and has the CREATE SESSION privilege only in a PDB that is open.
    D.    It is created only in CDB$ROOT and has the CREATE SESSION privilege.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 220
    Which two statements are true about roles in multitenant container databases (CDBs)?

    A.    Local roles can be granted to local and common users.
    B.    A common role can be granted only to a common user.
    C.    A common user can create a local role by default in any pluggable database (PDB) that is plugged in to a CDB.
    D.    A common role can be granted only system privileges.
    E.    The root container can have both local and common roles.
    F.    A local role can be assigned to a common role in a PDB.

    Answer: AC

    Reference https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/multitenant-manage-users-and-privileges-for-cdb-and-pdb-12cr1

    QUESTION 221
    Which three conditions must be met before you Virtual Private Catalog (VPC) can be created and used by an Administrator?

    A.    A base recovery catalog must exist.
    B.    The owner of the VPC cannot own recovery catalog.
    C.    At least one target database should be registered in the recovery catalog.
    D.    The REGISTER DATABASE privilege should be granted to the virtual catalog owner.
    E.    The DBA role must be granted to the virtual catalog owner.

    Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 222
    Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. Complete database backups are performed daily at midnight. A user accidentally truncates an important table at 10 AM after the last backup. After that, a few important transactions are performed on the database.

    Which two best methods for recovering the truncated table data?

    A.    Table Point-in-Time Recovery
    B.    Database Point-in-Time Recovery
    C.    Tablespace Point-in-Time Recovery
    D.    Flashback Database
    E.    Flashback Transaction Backout

    Answer: BD

    Reference https://blogs.oracle.com/sql/how-to-recover-data-without-a-backup

    QUESTION 223
    You issue the RMAN command:

    RMAN> BACKUP SECTION SIZE 300M TABLESPACE users;

    Which statement is true about the execution of the command?

    A.    The resulting backupset has backup pieces that cannot exceed 300 MB.
    B.    RMAN uses multiplexing to perform the backup.
    C.    RMAN always performs this type of backup in parallel.
    D.    The backup succeeds only if the USERS tablespace is locally managed.
    E.    The backup set size is limited to 300 MB.

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmbckad.htm#BRADV89546

    QUESTION 224
    Which two statements are true about encrypted backups performed by using RMAN?

    A.    Transparent encryption of backups uses an encryption wallet.
    B.    A database uses the same encryption key for every encrypted backup.
    C.    A password encryption of backups uses the password while creating and restoring backups.
    D.    Image copy backups can be created by using password encryption.
    E.    Encrypted backups can only be written to disk.

    Answer: AB
    Explanation:
    https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14191/rcmbackp.htm#BRADV007

    QUESTION 225
    Your multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 has two pluggable databases, PDB1 and PDB2. The local net service name CDB1 connects to the root database, and the service names PDB1 and PDB2 connect to the pluggable databases (PDBs), PDB1 and PDB2, respectively.

    Examine the commands to change the value of the PDB modifiable initialization parameter:

    $> sqlplus sys/oracle_4U@pdb1 AS SYSDBA
    SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baselines=FALSE SCOPE=BOTH; SQL>CONN sys/oracle_4U@pdb2 AS SYSDBA
    SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baselines= TRUE SCOPE = BOTH; SQL> CONN sys/oracle _4U@cdbl AS SYSDBA
    SQL.>ALTER SYSTEM SET optimizer_use_sql_plan_baseline=TRUE SCOPE=BOTH;

    Which statement is true about the OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter?

    A.    It gives an error because it cannot be set for the root database.
    B.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and the pluggable database PDB2, because values can be set for this parameter at the PDB level in a PDB.
    C.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and all the PDBS, because the value set at the root level has higher precedence.
    D.    It is set to TRUE for the root database and all the PDBS, but is effective only when the CDB is restarted and the PDBs are reopened.

    Answer: B

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    QUESTION 201
    Which three statements are true about unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)?

    A.    A PDB must be in closed state before it can be unplugged.
    B.    A PDB must have been opened at least once after creation.
    C.    A PDB must be in MOUNT state before it can be unplugged.
    D.    PDB data file are automatically removed from disk.
    E.    An unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same or another container database (CDB). (more…)

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    QUESTION 191
    Which three methods can be used to create a pluggable database (PDB) in an existing multitenant container database (CDB)?

    A.    Use PDB$SEED for creating a PDB.
    B.    Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug a non-CDB into an existing CDB.
    C.    Clone the existing PDB.
    D.    Use Enterprise Manager Database Express to create a PDB in an existing CDB.
    E.    Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug a pre-Oracle 12c database into an existing CDB. (more…)

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    QUESTION 21
    Which command is needed to enable SSH support on a Cisco Router?

    A.    crypto key lock rsa
    B.    crypto key generate rsa
    C.    crypto key zeroize rsa
    D.    crypto key unlock rsa (more…)

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    QUESTION 11
    What is the optimum distance for a person sitting using the Cisco TelePresence System 500?

    A.    the camera can adjust automatically
    B.    0.5 meters and 0.75 meters (1.5 and 2.5 feet)
    C.    1.2 meters and 1.8 meters (4 and 6 feet)
    D.    3.0 and 5.0 meters (10 and 15 feet) (more…)

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    QUESTION 11
    Use the exhibits below to answer the question.
    A new phone has been added to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, but is not registering properly.
    What is causing this failure? (more…)

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    QUESTION 392
    Which two statements regarding the Cisco VCS search and transformation process are true? (Choose two.)

    A.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 255 are processed first, then rules with priority 254, and so on).
    B.    Transforms do not use priority numbers.
    C.    Presearch transforms are applied before call policy is configured and before user policy is applied.
    D.    Presearch transforms are applied after call policy is configured but before user policy is applied.
    E.    The Cisco VCS applies the search rules in priority order (all rules with priority 1 are processed first, then priority 2, and so on).
    F.    You cannot set up search rules according to the protocol SIP or H.323.

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    QUESTION 249
    Some of yours users report issues when they are dialing extensions located in other branch offices. Sometimes the calls are set up successfully, and sometimes users experience problems during call setup. Which two reasons for the issue are true? (Choose two)

    A.    Not enough bandwidth is available between the two locations and Automated Alternate Routing is disabled on this cluster.
    B.    The Partition that contains the called extensions is not assigned to the line or device CSS of the calling users.
    C.    A firewall rule blocks traffic between the branch offices so the call setup cannot be completed.
    D.    The called extension is used only on a device profile for extension mobility and the user has been authenticated to a second phone in a different branch so the calls are delivered randomly to only one of his phones.
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    QUESTION 21
    An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?

    A.    2 dB
    B.    3 dB
    C.    4 dB
    D.    5 dB (more…)

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    QUESTION 21
    Which factor would be most influential in choosing multimode fiber optic connections over UTP?

    A.    signal attenuation
    B.    required bandwidth
    C.    required distance
    D.    electromagnetic interference
    E.    cost (more…)

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    QUESTION 21
    What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)

    A.    provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
    B.    allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
    C.    has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
    D.    uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
    E.    uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
    Which information is provided by the Load value?

    (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

    A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
    B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
    C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
    D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
    media before transmitting.
    E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

    Answer: ABE
    Explanation:
    Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

    QUESTION 32
    Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

    A.    show ip route
    B.    show interfaces
    C.    show s0/0 status
    D.    debug s0/0
    E.    show run
    F.    show version

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 33
    What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

    A.    172.16.0.0
    B.    172.16.128.0
    C.    172.16.156.0
    D.    172.16.159.0
    E.    172.16.159.128
    F.    172.16.192.0

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Converting to binary format it comes to
    11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
    255.255.252.0
    Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

    QUESTION 34
    An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

    A.    192.168.4.61
    B.    192.168.4.63
    C.    192.168.4.67
    D.    192.168.4.125
    E.    192.168.4.128
    F.    192.168.4.132

    Answer: CD
    Explanation:
    Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

    QUESTION 35
    Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
    Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

    351

    A.    192.168.1.31
    B.    192.168.1.64
    C.    192.168.1.127
    D.    192.168.1.190
    E.    192.168.1.192

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 36
    What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

    A.    192.168.23.0
    B.    192.168.23.32
    C.    192.168.23.48
    D.    192.168.23.56
    E.    192.168.23.60

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

    QUESTION 37
    What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

    A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
    B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
    C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
    D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

    QUESTION 38
    Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
    What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

    381

    A.    255.255.255.192
    B.    255.255.255.224
    C.    255.255.255.240
    D.    255.255.255.248
    E.    255.255.255.252

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 39
    Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

    A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
    B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
    C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
    D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
    E.    The network is not subnetted.

    Answer: BD
    Explanation:
    The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

    QUESTION 40
    Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

    A.    1
    B.    2
    C.    4
    D.    8
    E.    252
    F.    254

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    /30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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    QUESTION 41
    You have a server named Serverl that is hosted in an Azure virtual machine.
    Server1 contains the following:

    – One instance of SQL Server 2016 Enterprise
    – 10 databases
    – 500 stored procedures

    You have a database named Databasel that is hosted on Server1.
    Database1 contains 100 queries that are executed dynamically from web applications.
    You plan to remove data from the procedure cache on Database1.
    You have the following requirements:

    – Changes to Database1 must not affect other databases that are hosted on Server1
    – Changes to Database1 must not affect the performance of queries that are stored in other databases.
    – The solution must minimize administrative effort.

    You need to remove the data from the procedure cache as quickly as possible.
    What should you do?

    A.    Run DBCC FREEPROCCACHE.
    B.    Run ALTER DATABASE SCOPED CONFIGURATION CLEAR PROCEDURE CACHE in the context of Database 1.
    C.     Run DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS.
    D.     Write a script that iterates through each stored procedure definition and add WITH RECOMPILE to the definition.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    You should run ALTER DATABASE SCOPED CONFIGURATION CLEAR PROCEDURE CACHE in the context of Database! This statement lets you change the settings of a database without affecting other databases that are installed on the instance of SQL Server 2016.
    You should not run DBCC FREEPROCCACHE. DBCC FREEPROCCACHE would clean the entire plan cache and would affect all databases. It is possible to remove a single plan from the cache by using the plan_handle argument to DBCC FREEPROCCACHE, but you would have to identify all plans that are related to Databasel, which requires a lot more administrative effort.
    You should not run DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS. DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS will remove the clean pages from the buffer cache. Columnstore pages are removed from the columnstore cache.
    You should not write a script that will iterate through each stored procedure definition and add WITH RECOMPILE to the definition. Each time the procedure is called, it will be recompiled, and this might degrade the server’s performance. This approach would require additional administrative effort to produce the script. In addition, some calls are made from the web application and the script would not have any control over these calls. In earlier versions of SQL Server, prior to the availability of the ALTER DATABASE statement, this option would have been the way to avoid affecting other databases.

    QUESTION 42
    You are designing a Windows Azure SQL Database for an order fulfillment system.
    You create a table named Sales.Orders with the following script.

    421

    Each order is tracked by using one of the following statuses:

    – Fulfilled
    – Shipped
    – Ordered
    – Received

    You need to design the database to ensure that that you can retrieve the following information:

    – The current status of an order
    – The previous status of an order.
    – The date when the status changed.
    – The solution must minimize storage.

    More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

    A.    To the Sales.Orders table, add three columns named Status, PreviousStatus and ChangeDate.
    Update rows as the order status changes.
    B.    Create a new table named Sales.OrderStatus that contains three columns named OrderID,
    StatusDate, and Status. Insert new rows into the table as the order status changes.
    C.    Implement change data capture on the Sales.Orders table.
    D.    To the Sales.Orders table, add three columns named FulfilledDate, ShippedDate, and ReceivedDate.
    Update the value of each column from null to the appropriate date as the order status changes.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 43
    You are using dynamic management views to monitor an SQL Server server named SQL1.
    A database administrator named Dba1 must monitor the health of SQL1.
    You need to ensure that Dba1 can access dynamic management views for SQL1.
    The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
    Which permissions should you assign to Dba1?

    A.    VIEW ANY DEFINITION
    B.    VIEW SERVER STATE
    C.    VIEW DEFINITION
    D.    CONTROL SERVER

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    To query a dynamic management view or function requires SELECT permission on object and VIEW SERVER STATE or VIEW DATABASE STATE permission.

    QUESTION 44
    You are the administrator for a SQL Server 2016 instance that stores the data for an online transaction processing sales system.
    The company takes full backups every week; differential backups on the days with no full backups; and hourly transaction backups.
    These backups are stored on a backup server in the company’s data center.
    Every week, the company places the full backup on a tape and sends it to a third-party backup storage system.
    The company is worried that a disaster might occur that could destroy their computer center and cause them to lose orders.
    You need to determine the best method for providing the smallest amount of data loss and downtime without leasing or purchasing additional physical locations.
    What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

    A.    Set up SQL Server Always On with a SQL Azure database as a replica.
    B.    Set up SQL Server Always On by using a SQL Server on a Windows Azure Virtual Machine.
    C.    Put the differential backup on tape and send it to the third-party backup storage system.
    D.    Use the Microsoft SQL Server Backup to Microsoft Windows Azure Tool to direct all backups
    to a different geographical location.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 45
    You have a SQL Server 2016 database named DB1.
    You plan to import a large number of records from a SQL Azure database to DB1.
    You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of space used in the transaction log during the import operation.
    What should you include in the recommendation?

    A.    The bulk-logged recovery model
    B.    The full recovery model
    C.    A new partitioned table
    D.    A new log file
    E.    A new file group

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Compared to the full recovery model, which fully logs all transactions, the bulk-logged recovery model minimally logs bulk operations, although fully logging other transactions.
    The bulk-logged recovery model protects against media failure and, for bulk operations, provides the best performance and least log space usage.
    Note:
    The bulk-logged recovery model is a special-purpose recovery model that should be used only intermittently to improve the performance of certain large-scale bulk operations, such as bulk imports of large amounts of data.

    QUESTION 46
    You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
    Users report that an application that accesses the database displays an error, but the error does not provide meaningful information.
    No entries are found in the SQL Server log or Windows event logs related to the error.
    You need to identify the root cause of the issue by retrieving the error message.
    What should you do?

    A.    Create an Extended Events session by using the sqlserver.error_reported event.
    B.    Create a SQL Profiler session to capture all ErrorLog and EventLog events.
    C.    Flag all stored procedures for recompilation by using sp_recompile.
    D.    Execute sp_who.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Event sqlserver.error_reported: This event gets fired every time that an error happens in the server.
    https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/extended_events/2010/04/14/introduction-to-extended-events/

    QUESTION 47
    You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server.
    One of the databases on the server supports a highly active OLTP application.
    Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application.
    You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time.
    What should you do?

    A.    use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server.
    Filter queries that have a Duration value of more than 1,000.
    B.    Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold.
    Create an extended event session.
    C.    Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running.
    Review the Job History to find out the duration of each step.
    D.    Run the sp_who command from a query window.
    E.    Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Incorrect Answers:
    E: DBCC TRACEON 1222 is used to detect deadlocks, not to detect long running queries.
    http://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/2130/finding-sql-server-deadlocks-using-trace-flag-1222/
    http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188396.aspx

    QUESTION 48
    You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
    You need to ensure that the size of the transaction log file does not exceed 2 GB.
    What should you do?

    A.    Execute sp_configure ‘max log size’, 2G.
    B.    use the ALTER DATABASE…SET LOGFILE command along with the maxsize parameter.
    C.    In SQL Server Management Studio, right-click the instance and select Database Settings. Set the maximum size of the file for the transaction log.
    D.    In SQL Server Management Studio, right-click the database, select Properties, and then click Files.
    Open the Transaction log Autogrowth window and set the maximum size of the file.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    You can use the ALTER DATABASE (Transact-SQL) statement to manage the growth of a transaction log file
    To control the maximum the size of a log file in KB, MB, GB, and TB units or to set growth to UNLIMITED, use the MAXSIZE option.
    However, there is no SET LOGFILE subcommand.
    https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms365418(v=sql.110).aspx#ControlGrowth

    QUESTION 49
    You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server.
    The MSSQLSERVER service uses a domain account named CONTOSO\SQLService.
    You plan to configure Instant File Initialization.
    You need to ensure that Data File Autogrow operations use Instant File Initialization.
    What should you do? Choose all that apply.

    A.    Restart the SQL Server Agent Service.
    B.    Disable snapshot isolation.
    C.    Restart the SQL Server Service.
    D.    Add the CONTOSO\SQLService account to the Perform Volume Maintenance Tasks local security policy.
    E.    Add the CONTOSO\SQLService account to the Server Operators fixed server role.
    F.    Enable snapshot isolation.

    Answer: CD
    Explanation:
    How To Enable Instant File Initialization
    1. Open Local Security Policy and go to Local Policies –> User Rights Assignment.
    2. Double click Perform Volume Maintenance Tasks and add your SQL Server database engine service account.
    3. Restart the SQL Server service using SQL Server Configuration Manager and this setting should now be enabled.
    http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175935.aspx

    QUESTION 50
    You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 failover cluster that contains two nodes named Node A and Node B.
    A single instance of SQL Server is installed on the cluster.
    An additional node named Node C has been added to the existing cluster.
    You need to ensure that the SQL Server instance can use all nodes of the cluster.
    What should you do?

    A.    Run the New SQL Server stand-alone installation Wizard on Node C.
    B.    Run the Add Node to SQL Server Failover Cluster Wizard on Node C.
    C.    Use Node B to install SQL Server on Node C.
    D.    Use Node A to install SQL Server on Node C.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    To add a node to an existing SQL Server failover cluster, you must run SQL Server Setup on the node that is to be added to the SQL Server failover cluster instance.
    Do not run Setup on the active node.
    The Installation Wizard will launch the SQL Server Installation Center. To add a node to an existing failover cluster instance, click Installation in the left-hand pane.
    Then, select Add node to a SQL Server failover cluster.
    http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms191545.aspx

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