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Daily Archives: Monday, April 9, 2018

  • [April 2018] 2018 Cisco 300-360 Dumps Free Download 100% Pass Promised By Lead2pass 140q

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    QUESTION 21
    An engineer is assigned to provide wireless coverage in a provincial capital building. Due to the age and historic nature of the building, the ability to run new copper Ethernet cable to desired AP locations is limited. Which requirement should the engineer specify to overcome this restriction?

    A.    Deploy access points where the survey indicates and connect them via fiber optic cable, using a mediaadapter, and locally provide power.
    B.    Deploy access points to each phone location converting two spare pairs of copper from the phone line toEthernet and locally provide power.
    C.    Deploy access point devices where limited cable can be run or exists and connect high-gain antennas andincrease Tx power to increase cell size.
    D.    Deploy RAP where limited cable can be run or exists, and extend coverage using MAP.

    (more…)

  • [April 2018] Updated 300-320 New Questions From Lead2pass Free Downloading 558q

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    QUESTION 21
    Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?

    A.    OTV
    B.    VSS
    C.    vPC
    D.    VDC

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 22
    Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?

    A.    OTV
    B.    VSS
    C.    vPC
    D.    VLAN

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?

    A.    connect to other data centers
    B.    connect to the access layer
    C.    connect to the end users
    D.    connect to mobile devices

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html
    “Edge Device
    The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
    […]
    Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. ”

    QUESTION 24
    Which QoS architecture provides scalability of implementation?

    A.    IntServ
    B.    DiffServ
    C.    LLQ
    D.    RSVP

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 25
    Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications?

    A.    IntServ
    B.    DiffServ
    C.    LLQ
    D.    ToS
    E.    DSCP

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    DiffServ is known as “Hop-by-Hop” and not “End-to-End”

    QUESTION 26
    CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

    A.    MPLS
    B.    IEEE 802.1W
    C.    IEEE 802.1Q
    D.    IEEE 802.1S

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 27
    Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?

    A.    UDP, because it is connectionless
    B.    SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
    C.    Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
    D.    MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 28
    What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?

    A.    It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
    B.    Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
    C.    There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
    D.    SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 29
    The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?

    A.    PIM
    B.    IGMP
    C.    underlying IGP
    D.    MSDP

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr.html
    “Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”

    QUESTION 30
    Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?

    A.    Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
    B.    Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
    C.    Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
    D.    Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.

    Answer: C

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  • [April 2018] New Lead2pass Cisco 300-210 New Questions Free Download 365q

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    QUESTION 41
    Which version of AsyncOS for web is required to deploy the Web Security Appliance as a CWS connector?

    A.    AsyncOS version 7.7.x
    B.    AsyncOS version 7.5.x
    C.    AsyncOS version 7.5.7
    D.    AsyncOS version 7.5.0

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 42
    What are three benefits of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Solution? (Choose three.)

    A.    It can protect against command-injection and directory-traversal attacks.
    B.    It provides Internet transport while maintaining corporate security policies.
    C.    It provides secure remote access to managed computers.
    D.    It provides clientless remote access to multiple network-based systems.
    E.    It enforces security policies, regardless of the user location.
    F.    It uses ACLs to determine best-route connections for clients in a secure environment.

    Answer: BCE

    QUESTION 43
    Which Cisco technology secures the network through malware filtering, category-based control, and reputation-based control?

    A.    Cisco ASA 5500 Series appliances
    B.    Cisco remote-access VPNs
    C.    Cisco IronPort WSA
    D.    Cisco IPS

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 44
    Which antispam technology assumes that email from server A, which has a history of distributing spam, is more likely to be spam than email from server B, which does not have a history of distributing spam?

    A.    Reputation-based filtering
    B.    Context-based filtering
    C.    Cisco ESA multilayer approach
    D.    Policy-based filtering

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 45
    Which Cisco technology is a modular security service that combines a stateful inspection firewall with next-generation application awareness, providing near real-time threat protection?

    A.    Cisco ASA 5500 series appliances
    B.    Cisco ASA CX Context-Aware Security
    C.    WSA
    D.    Internet Edge Firewall / IPS

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 46
    Which three statements about Cisco ASA CX are true? (Choose three.)

    A.    It groups multiple ASAs as a single logical device.
    B.    It can perform context-aware inspection.
    C.    It provides high-density security services with high availability.
    D.    It uses policy-based interface controls to inspect and forward TCP- and UDP-based packets.
    E.    It can make context-aware decisions.
    F.    It uses four cooperative architectural constructs to build the firewall.

    Answer: BEF

    QUESTION 47
    During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?

    A.    cxsc fail
    B.    cxsc fail-close
    C.    cxsc fail-open
    D.    cxssp fail-close

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 48
    Cisco AVC allows control of which three of the following? (Choose three.)

    A.    Facebook
    B.    LWAPP
    C.    IPv6
    D.    MySpace
    E.    Twitter
    F.    WCCP

    Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 49
    The Web Security Appliance has identities defined for faculty and staff, students, and default access. The faculty and staff identity identifies users based on the source network and authenticated credentials. The identity for students identifies users based on the source network along with successful authentication credentials. The global identity is for guest users not authenticated against the domain.
    Recently, a change was made to the organization’s security policy to allow faculty and staff access to a social network website, and the security group changed the access policy for faculty and staff to allow the social networking category.
    Which are the two most likely reasons that the category is still being blocked for a faculty and staff user? (Choose two.)

    A.    The user is being matched against the student policy because the user did not enter credentials.
    B.    The user is using an unsupported browser so the credentials are not working.
    C.    The social networking URL was entered into a custom URL category that is blocked in the access policy.
    D.    The user is connected to the wrong network and is being blocked by the student policy.
    E.    The social networking category is being allowed but the AVC policy is still blocking the website.

    Answer: CE

    QUESTION 50
    Which five system management protocols are supported by the Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)

    A.    SNMPv2c
    B.    SNMPv1
    C.    SNMPv2
    D.    SNMPv3
    E.    syslog
    F.    SDEE
    G.    SMTP

    Answer: ABCFG

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    QUESTION 21
    Which statement is true when implementing a router with a dynamic public IP address in a crypto map based site-to-site VPN?

    A.    The router must be configured with a dynamic crypto map.
    B.    Certificates are always used for phase 1 authentication.
    C.    The tunnel establishment will fail if the router is configured as a responder only.
    D.    The router and the peer router must have NAT traversal enabled.

    (more…)