web analytics

Cisco

  • [May 2018] Lead2pass Latest 840-425 PDF Guarantee 100% Pass 840-425 Exam 191q

    Lead2pass Latest Cisco 840-425 Exam Questions Free Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/840-425.html

    QUESTION 31
    Which two options are reasons why we are seeing increasing levels of business-led change? (Choose two.)

    A.    Because IT solutions are going through a trend of decreasing costs.
    B.    Because business requirements are changing rapidly.
    C.    Because the technology led change is too expensive.
    D.    Because of the disruption created by the megatrends: cloud, mobility, big data, video. (more…)

  • [May 2018] Free Sharing Of Updated 810-403 VCE And PDF Dumps From Lead2pass 231q

    Free Updated Lead2pass 810-403 Exam Dumps Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/810-403.html

    QUESTION 31
    Which three options are considerations you have to take into account when communicating the business outcomes story? (Choose three.)

    A.    Be aware of people’s time and length of presentation.
    B.    Organize the presentation so that the message is clear and key points emerge early.
    C.    Prepare carefully the agenda and the objectives definitions.
    D.    Use the right verbal and corporate language.
    E.    Know your audience and what is of interest to them.

    Answer: ABE

    QUESTION 32
    Which option is the most effective way to use best practices or scenarios during the selling process?

    A.    in use cases that are relevant to the customer
    B.    in business cases used previously
    C.    in customer briefing documents
    D.    in customer benefits statements

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 33
    Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?

    A.    Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
    B.    Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
    C.    To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
    D.    Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 34
    Which option is the main element of a Business Outcomes storyline?

    A.    relevancy to customers’ strategy
    B.    Cisco differentiators
    C.    Cisco products
    D.    guaranteed customer ROI

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 35
    Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)

    A.    Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
    B.    Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
    C.    Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
    D.    Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.

    Answer: AC

    QUESTION 36
    You are working to understand a customer business environment. Which two options are preferred data gathering techniques? (Choose two.)

    A.    surveys
    B.    interviews
    C.    asking competitors
    D.    stock analysis reports
    E.    social media

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 37
    Which statement best describes the Cisco sales approach?

    A.    Understand the goals of the buyer.
    B.    Focus on Cisco technologies already in place.
    C.    Focus on fulfilling customer needs and help them generate value through stronger business outcomes.
    D.    Pay attention to details that the customer is sharing about their needs.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 38
    Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. What approach is frequently used to achieve business outcomes?

    A.    Using Next Generation IT to increase service quality. Also, reducing risk, complexity and costs
    B.    Refining, enriching or developing & enabling new business processes, new markets, and customer interactions
    C.    Taking advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
    D.    Improving agility & ability to create or deploy high quality, differentiated, innovative services for end users

    Answer: B

    810-403 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/810-403.html

    Large amount of free 810-403 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDZnQyZnJ2N0lVZDQ

  • [May 2018] 2018 New Released Cisco 500-265 Exam Dumps Free Download In Lead2pass 118q

    2018 Updated Lead2pass Cisco 500-265 Exam Questions:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/500-265.html

    QUESTION 31
    Consider the process that begins with file retrospection, continues to interrogate the file and update its disposition over time, then records the pathway that the software and files take from device to device. This process is an example of which Cisco AMP feature?

    A.    file reputation
    B.    attack chain weaving
    C.    breach hunting
    D.    file sandboxing
    E.    machine learning

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 32
    How does the Device Trajectory feature work?

    A.    It searches for potential threats based on identified activities.
    B.    It tracks file behavior across the network to see which devices it enters and exits.
    C.    It analyzes the data from file and process retrospection to provide a new level of threat intelligence.
    D.    It isolates suspicious files and runs tests to determine their authenticity.
    E.    It tracks file behavior on a device to pinpoint the root cause of a compromise.

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 33
    Which Cisco Secure Access solution should you recommend to a customer who is experiencing access complications due to too many policies and too many user groups?

    A.    Cisco AnyConnect
    B.    Cisco TrustSec
    C.    Cisco ISE
    D.    Cisco AMP for Endpoints
    E.    Cisco site-to-site VPN
    F.    Cisco SIO

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 34
    Which statement best describes Cisco ISE?

    A.    Cisco ISE consolidates user AAA, Security Group Access features, and ScanSafe functionality into one product.
    B.    Cisco ISE consolidates user authentication with NAC components into one solution.
    C.    Cisco ISE provides AAA features, guest provisioning, and device profiling features in the base feature set; link encryption policies, host posture, and security group access require the advanced feature set.
    D.    Cisco ISE combines the capabilities of Cisco Secure ACS and Cisco Virtual Security Gateway into one product.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 35
    Which two statements about the capabilities of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client for Windows are true? (Choose two.)

    A.    It supports always-on connectivity by automatically establishing a VPN connection as needed. If multiple VPN gateways exist, load sharing occurs in a Round-robin fashion.
    B.    It supports session persistence after hibernation or standby.
    C.    Trusted Network Detection allows the connection to be established without any user intervention (authentication), if the client is located inside the office.
    D.    It is exclusively configured by central policies; no local configuration is possible.
    E.    The order of policy enforcement is as follows: dynamic access policy, user attributes, tunnel group, group policy attributes.

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 36
    Which statement about wireless intrusion prevention and rogue access point detection is true?

    A.    A local mode access point provides power to wireless clients.
    B.    A monitor mode access point performs background scanning in order to detect rogue access points.
    C.    A monitor mode access point is dedicated to scanning (listen-only).
    D.    A monitor mode access point can distribute a white list of all known access points.
    E.    Any access point that broadcasts the same RF group name or is part of the same mobility group is considered to be a rogue access point.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 37
    Which Cisco technology solution can resolve a customer’s inability to properly restrict and authorize access to protected resources, while still introducing new applications, devices, and business partnerships?

    A.    Cisco TrustSec
    B.    Cisco Data Center Management Policy Implementation
    C.    Cisco Data Center Virtualization and Cloud
    D.    Cisco Cyber Threat Defense
    E.    Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure
    F.    Cisco Secure Data Center
    G.    Cisco Security Intelligence Operations

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 38
    Which two advanced malware protection features are available on Cisco AMP for Content? (Choose two.)

    A.    URL filtering
    B.    retrospective security
    C.    attack chain weaving
    D.    breach hunting
    E.    trajectory
    F.    behavioral indications of compromise

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 39
    Which option best describes granular app control using application visibility and control?

    A.    blocking harmful sites based on content, such as pokerstars.com
    B.    blocking World of Warcraft but allowing Google+
    C.    blocking Facebook games but allowing Facebook posts
    D.    blocking Twitter to increase employee productivity

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 40
    The first phase of email security analyzes “who-what-where-when-how” information and context-based policies during which component of threat detection?

    A.    antivirus defense
    B.    advanced malware protection for email
    C.    outbreak filters
    D.    data loss prevention
    E.    encryption
    F.    antispam defense

    Answer: F

    500-265 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/500-265.html

    Large amount of free 500-265 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDMFRoaVJfYURMNmM

  • [May 2018] Lead2pass Dumps For Exam 500-052 With New Updated Exam Questions 91q

    Easily Pass 500-052 Exam By Training Lead2pass Latest VCE Dumps:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/500-052.html

    QUESTION 71
    Cisco Finesse supports the use of custom call variable layouts. How does the agent desktop determine which layout to use?

    A.    The name of the layout is passed to the agent desktop via a keyword variable that is named user layout.
    B.    The layout is associated to the team under Team Resources.
    C.    The layout is associated to the CSQ definition.
    D.    The layout is associated to the desktop layout under Team Resources.

    (more…)

  • [May 2018] 400-351 Latest Dumps Free Download From Lead2pass 305q

    New Lead2pass 400-351 Dumps PDF Version Released For Free Downloading:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/400-351.html

    QUESTION 31
    Your customer wants to configure LSCs and asks for specific information about which number to configure in the text box right next to the “Number of Attempts”. Which statement is true?

    A.    The default number of attempts is 100.
    B.    A value of 2 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC, the AP attempts to Join the Cisco WLC using the default certificate
    C.    A value of 255 means that if an AP fails to join the Cisco WLC using an LSC,the AP does not attempt to join the Cisco WLC using the default .
    D.    A value of 3 means that if a user fails to authenticate,the user is disconnected after three retries. (more…)

  • [May 2018] Lead2pass Latest Cisco 400-101 Exam Questions Free Download 1197q

    Lead2pass Latest Cisco 400-101 Exam Questions Free Downloading:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html

    QUESTION 41
    Which three of the following security controls would you take into consideration when implementing loT capabities? (Choose three.)

    A.    Layered Security Appoach.
    B.    Place security above functionality.
    C.    Define lifecycle controls for loT devices.
    D.    Privacy impact Assessment.
    E.    Change passwords every 90 days.
    F.    Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on loT devices.

    Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 42
    Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?

    A.    offset-list
    B.    neighbor
    C.    address-family
    D.    stub

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 43
    Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?

    431

    A.    broadcast
    B.    Ethernet
    C.    multipoint
    D.    point-to-point

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 44
    Which option describes the characteristics of a public Infrastructure as a Serveice cloud service model?

    A.    It is a way of delivering cloud-computing infrastructure (servers, storage, network, and operating systems) as an on-demand service.
    B.    It is a cloud service where the underlying hardware is managed by the cloud service provider.
    C.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software applications.
    D.    It is a cloud-computing platform that facilitates the creation of web applications without the need to maintain the supporting software operating systems.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 45
    Which effect of configuring the passive-interface S0/0 command under the EIGRP routing process is true?

    A.    It prevents EIGRP neighbor relationships from being formed over interface S0/0.
    B.    It configures interface S0/0 to send hello packets with the passive-interface bit set.
    C.    It configures interface S0/0 to suppress all outgoing routing updates.
    D.    It configures interface S0/0 to reject all incoming routing updates.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 46
    What is the default IS-IS interface metric on a Cisco router?

    A.    255
    B.    64
    C.    10
    D.    128

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 47
    Which two items must be defined to capture packet data with the Embedded Packet Capture feature? (Choose two.)

    A.    the capture rate
    B.    the capture point
    C.    the capture buffer
    D.    the buffer memory size
    E.    the capture filter
    F.    the capture file export location

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 48
    When you configure an IPv6 IPsec tunnel, which two fields can represent the ISAKMP identity of a peer? (Choose two)

    A.    Authentication method
    B.    DH group identifier
    C.    Hostname
    D.    IPv6 address
    E.    Encryption algorithm

    Answer: CD

    QUESTION 49
    Which action enables passive interfaces in RIPv6(RIPng)?

    A.    Use “passive-interface default” under the routing process.
    B.    Enable passive-interface on interface configuration.
    C.    passive interface are not supported in RIPng.
    D.    Enable passive-interface for each interface under the routing process.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 50
    Which statement is true about IGMP?

    A.    Multicast sources send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then generates a PIM join message that is then sent to the RP.
    B.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to their first-hop router, which then forwards the IGMP messages to the RP.
    C.    IGMP messages are encapsulated in PIM register messages and sent to the RP.
    D.    Multicast receivers send IGMP messages to signal their interest to receive traffic for specific multicast groups.

    Answer: D

    400-101 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html

    Large amount of free 400-101 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDZ0lrZUFjNWtFYlk

  • [May 2018] Free Updated Lead2pass 400-051 Exam Dumps Download 534q

    Free Version Lead2pass Cisco 400-051 PDF Dumps With Exam Questions Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/400-051.html

    QUESTION 41
    Which two statements are requirements regarding hunt group options for B-ACD implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express routers? (Choose two.)

    A.    The ephone hunt group is mandatory.
    B.    Either the ephone hunt group or the voice hunt group is acceptable.
    C.    Hunt group members must be SCCP IP phones.
    D.    Hunt group members can include both SCCP or SIP IP phones.
    E.    Hunt group members must be SIP IP phones.
    F.    The member hunting mechanism must be set to sequential.

    Answer: AC
    Explanation:
    The ephone hunt group is mandatory, and while ephone hunt groups only support Cisco Unified SCCP IP phones, a voice hunt group supports either a Cisco Unified SCCP IP phone or a Cisco Unified SIP IP phone
    http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucme/command/reference/cme_v1ht.html

    QUESTION 42
    Which call hunt mechanism is only supported by the voice hunt group in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router?

    A.    sequential
    B.    peer
    C.    longest idle
    D.    parallel
    E.    overlay

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Parallel Hunt-Group, allows a user to dial a pilot number that rings 2-10 different extensions simultaneously. The first extension to answer gets connected to the caller while all other extensions will stop ringing. A timeout value can be set whereas if none of the extensions answer before the timer expires, all the extensions will stop ringing and one final destination number will ring indefinitely instead. The final number could be another voice hunt-group pilot number or mailbox The following features are supported for Voice Hunt-Group:
    Calls can be forwarded to Voice Hunt-Group
    Calls can be transferred to Voice Hunt-Group
    Member of Voice Hunt-Group can be SCCP, ds0-group, pri-group, FXS or SIP phone/trunk
    Max member of Voice Hunt-Group will be 32

    QUESTION 43
    Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express ephone button configuration separator enables overflow lines when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call?

    A.    o
    B.    c
    C.    w
    D.    x
    E.    :

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    x expansion/overflow, define additional expansion lines that are used when the primary line for an overlay button is occupied by an active call.

    QUESTION 44
    Which two statements describe characteristics of Cisco Unified Border Element high availability, prior to Cisco IOS release 15.2.3T, using a box-to-box redundancy configuration? (Choose two.)

    A.    It leverages HSRP for router redundancy and GLBP for load sharing between a pair of routers.
    B.    Cisco Unified Border Element session information is check-pointed across the active and standby router pair.
    C.    It supports media and signal preservation when a switchover occurs.
    D.    Only media streams are preserved when a switchover occurs.
    E.    It can leverage either HSRP or VRRP for router redundancy.
    F.    The SIP media signal must be bound to the loopback interface.

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 45
    Refer to the exhibit. From this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router, how many bearer channels are available to carry voice traffic?

    451

    A.    91
    B.    92
    C.    93
    D.    94
    E.    95

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    In NFAS one channel is used for signaling so according to this we will have 94 channel for with bearer capability.

    QUESTION 46
    Refer to the exhibit. Assuming this NFAS-enabled T1 PRI configuration on a Cisco IOS router is fully functional, what will the controller T1 1/1 D-channel status be in the output of the show isdn status command?

    461

    A.    MULTIPLE_FRAME_ESTABLISHED
    B.    TEI_ASSIGNED
    C.    AWAITING_ESTABLISHMENT
    D.    STANDBY
    E.    INITIALIZED

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    TEI_ASSIGNED, which indicates that the PRI does not exchange Layer 2 frames with the switch. Use the show controller t1 x command to first check the controller t1 circuit, and verify whether it is clean (that is, it has no errors) before you troubleshoot ISDN Layer 2 problem with the debug isdn q921.

    QUESTION 47
    Refer to the exhibit. In an effort to troubleshoot a caller ID delivery problem, a customer emailed you the voice port configuration on a Cisco IOS router. Which type of voice port is it?

    471

    A.    FXS
    B.    E&M
    C.    BRI
    D.    FXO
    E.    DID

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 48
    The iLBC codec operates at 38 bytes per sample per 20-millisecond interval. What is its codec bit rate in kilobits per second?

    A.    6.3
    B.    13.3
    C.    15.2
    D.    16
    E.    24

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    The internet Low Bit Rate Codec (iLBC) is designed for narrow band speech and results in a payload bit rate of 13.33 kbits per second for 30-millisecond (ms) frames and 15.20 kbits per second for 20 ms frames. When the codec operates at block lengths of 20 ms, it produces 304 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952. Similarly, for block lengths of 30 ms it produces 400 bits per block, which is packetized as defined in RFC 3952.The iLBC has built-in error correction functionality to provide better performance in networks with higher packet loss

    QUESTION 49
    Assume 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and a 40-millisecond voice payload, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for five VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link?

    A.    87 kb/s
    B.    134 kb/s
    C.    102.6 kb/s
    D.    77.6 kb/s
    E.    71.3 kb/s

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

    QUESTION 50
    Assume 20 bytes of voice payload, 6 bytes for the Layer 2 header, 1 byte for the end-of-frame flag, and the IP, UDP, and RTP headers are compressed to 2 bytes, how much bandwidth should be allocated to the strict priority queue for six VoIP calls that use a G.729 codec over a multilink PPP link with cRTP enabled?

    A.    80.4 kb/s
    B.    91.2 kb/s
    C.    78.4 kb/s
    D.    69.6 kb/s
    E.    62.4 kb/s

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Voice payloads are encapsulated by RTP, then by UDP, then by IP. A Layer 2 header of the correct format is applied; the type obviously depends on the link technology in use by each router interface: A single voice call generates two one-way RTP/UDP/IP packet streams. UDP provides multiplexing and checksum capability; RTP provides payload identification, timestamps, and sequence numbering.

    400-051 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/400-051.html

    Large amount of free 400-051 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDcVpjV1ZNcjVzaW8

  • [May 2018] Free Lead2pass Cisco 352-001 PDF Dumps With New Update Exam Questions 510q

    Free Lead2pass Cisco 352-001 PDF Dumps With The Latest Update Exam Questions:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/352-001.html

    QUESTION 31
    Refer to the exhibit. Your junior design engineer presents this configuration design. What is the next-hop router for CE3, and why?

    311

    A.    CE1. BGP weight is higher than CE2.
    B.    CE2. EBGP administrative distance is lower than RIP.
    C.    CE2. The link between CE2 and PE1 has more bandwidth than CE1-to-PE1.
    D.    CE1. HSRP on CE1 is in active state.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 32
    A service provider creates a network design that runs MPLS in its WAN backbone using OSPF as the IGP routing protocol. What would be two effects of additionally implementing MPLS-TE? (Choose two.)

    A.    MPLS-TE is required to reroute traffic within less than 1 second in case of a link failure inside the
    backbone.
    B.    MPLS-TE is required to route different MPLS QoS service classes through different paths.
    C.    MPLS-TE and OSPF cannot be used together inside one MPLS network.
    D.    MPLS-TE cannot use OSPF for the traffic path calculation.
    E.    MPLS-TE is required to create backup paths independently from the IGP.

    Answer: BE

    QUESTION 33
    Which two mechanisms ensure that a network design provides fast path failure detection? (Choose two.)

    A.    BFD
    B.    fast hello packets
    C.    UDLD
    D.    IP Cisco Express Forwarding

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 34
    In which two ways is a network design improved by the inclusion of IP Event Dampening? (Choose two.)

    A.    reduces processing load
    B.    provides sub-second convergence
    C.    improves network stability
    D.    prevents routing loops
    E.    quickly detects network failures

    Answer: AC

    QUESTION 35
    You are evaluating convergence characteristics of various interior gateway protocols for a new network design. Which technology allows link-state routing protocols to calculate paths to destination prefixes that are functionally similar to feasible successors in Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol?

    A.    Incremental Shortest Path First
    B.    Cisco Multiprotocol Label Switching Traffic Engineering Fast Reroute
    C.    Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
    D.    partial route calculation
    E.    Fast-Flooding

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 36
    You are hired to design a solution that will improve network availability for users on a campus network with routed access. If the budget limits you to three components, which three components would you recommend in your design proposal? (Choose three.)

    A.    redundant power supplies in the access routers
    B.    standby route processors for SSO in the core routers
    C.    standby route processors for SSO in the distribution routers
    D.    standby route processors for SSO in the access routers
    E.    replace copper links between devices with fiber links

    Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 37
    You are designing a network to support data, voice and video. Which two main factors will you address to improve network convergence? (Choose two.)

    A.    event propagation delay
    B.    failure detection delay
    C.    forwarding engine update delay
    D.    routing table recalculation delay

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 38
    Refer to the exhibit. This diagram depicts the design of a small network that will run EIGRP on R1 and R2, and EIGRP Stub on R3. In which two ways will this network be impacted if there is link instability between R1 and R2? (Choose two.)

    381

    A.    R1 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R2 and R3.
    B.    R3 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R2.
    C.    R2 will have routes in its routing table that originate from R1 and R3.
    D.    R3 will be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.
    E.    R3 will not be transit for traffic between R1 and R2.

    Answer: BE

    352-001 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/352-001.html

    Large amount of free 352-001 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDaUphM0lMOWRjUU0

    You may also need:

    200-310 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDUE9zeHd2YUFFNUE

    300-101 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDbHBiVVk1ZVhpOGc

    300-115 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDM0pqaFJWUXVuM2M

    300-320 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDUGlzdWdZNHUwZ28

  • [May 2018] Lead2pass Latest 300-365 Free Dumps Guarantee 300-365 Certification Exam 100% Success 71q

    Lead2pass Latest 300-365 PDF Guarantee 100% Pass 300-365 Exam:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-365.html

    QUESTION 31
    Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?

    A.    show ap config general Cisco_AP
    B.    show wlan wlan_id
    C.    show flexconnect summary
    D.    show flexconnect group detail (more…)

  • [May 2018] 2018 Latest Updated 300-360 Dumps Free Download In Lead2pass 147q

    2018 Cisco 300-360 Dumps Free Download 100% Pass Promised By Lead2pass:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-360.html

    QUESTION 31
    After the completion of a site survey with Ekahau Site Survey tool, using the default color palette, it is noted that multiple areas are shown as white on the heat map when viewing 5 GHz signal strength data. What does this indicate about the signal strength?

    A.    The area is below the minimum threshold configured on the tool.
    B.    The area is below the detectable level and indicates no RF signal.
    C.    The area is below -100 dBm at coverage cell edge.
    D.    The area is below -67 dBm at coverage cell edge.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 32
    An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to when determining where APs can be installed?

    A.    Local or National Building Code
    B.    IEEE
    C.    BICSI TDMM
    D.    Cisco Hardware Installation Guide

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 33
    An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?

    A.    overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points
    B.    overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
    C.    continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
    D.    continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 34
    A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

    A.    Use APs with external antennas.
    B.    Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.
    C.    Use APs with built-in antennas.
    D.    Use a battery pack to power APs.
    E.    Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.
    F.    Use APs with directional antennas.

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 35
    An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation.
    What is the coverage area from the AP if the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration?

    A.    225 feet
    B.    80 feet
    C.    150 feet
    D.    100 feet

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 36
    Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)

    A.    Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
    B.    Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
    C.    Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installation is complete.
    D.    Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems.
    E.    Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.

    Answer: BE

    QUESTION 37
    A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a floor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices. Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new floor?

    A.    Data Coverage Support Margin
    B.    Demand Settings
    C.    Add AP Field
    D.    802.11n Protocol Support

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/prime_infrastructure/1-2/configuration/guide/pi_12_cg/maps.html#pgfId-1671104

    QUESTION 38
    What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?

    A.    11 Mb/s
    B.    36 Mb/s
    C.    12 Mb/s
    D.    18 Mb/s

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 39
    An engineer is conducting a location readiness test and wants a selected point to be considered location-ready. Which three possible configurations reflect the minimum number of APs needed? (Choose three.)

    A.    One AP is resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-question.
    B.    One AP per 1400 sq. ft. on the map.
    C.    Two APs are resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in- question.
    D.    Four APs are deployed on the floor.
    E.    Three APs are within 70 feet (21 meters) of the point-in- question
    F.    Three APs are deployed on the floor.

    Answer: ADE
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Unified_Access/CMX/CMX_LocFund.pdf

    QUESTION 40
    A network engineer is configuring QoS with a DSCP value of 46. To which queue must the CoS be mapped for priority queuing of the voice frames?

    A.    1
    B.    2
    C.    5
    D.    4
    E.    3

    Answer: C

    300-360 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/300-360.html

    Large amount of free 300-360 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDU1VGRGVieEdJWGM

    Maybe you also need:

    Large amount of free 300-365 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDSnBMTGlieXBLZWs

    Large amount of free 300-370 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDSTdRZ3dTUjVscVU

    Large amount of free 300-375 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDaUxFbEpISnFINk0

  • [May 2018] Try Lead2pass Latest Cisco 300-210 Dumps To Pass The Exam Successfully 383q

    Updated 300-210 New Questions From Lead2pass Free Downloading:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-210.html

    QUESTION 51
    Which IPS signature regular expression CLI command matches a host issuing a domain lookup for www.theblock.com?

    A.    regex-string (\x03[Tt][Hh][Ee]\x05[Bb][Ll][Oo][Cc][Kk])
    B.    regex-string (\x0b[theblock.com])
    C.    regex-string (\x03[the]\x05[block]0x3[com])
    D.    regex-string (\x03[T][H][E]\x05[B][L][O][C][K]\x03[.][C][O][M] (more…)

  • [May 2018] New Lead2pass Cisco 300-209 New Questions Free Download 319q

    New Released Exam 300-209 PDF Free From the Lead2pass:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-209.html

    QUESTION 31
    A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?

    A.    HTTPS
    B.    NetBIOS
    C.    CIFS
    D.    HTTP

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 32
    You are configuring a Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway to operate with DVTI support. Which command must you configure on the virtual template?

    A.    tunnel protection ipsec
    B.    ip virtual-reassembly
    C.    tunnel mode ipsec
    D.    ip unnumbered

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 33
    Which protocol supports high availability in a Cisco IOS SSL VPN environment?

    A.    HSRP
    B.    VRRP
    C.    GLBP
    D.    IRDP

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 34
    When you configure IPsec VPN High Availability Enhancements, which technology does Cisco recommend that you enable to make reconvergence faster?

    A.    EOT
    B.    IP SLAs
    C.    periodic IKE keepalives
    D.    VPN fast detection

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 35
    Which hash algorithm is required to protect classified information?

    A.    MD5
    B.    SHA-1
    C.    SHA-256
    D.    SHA-384

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 36
    Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?

    A.    HIPPA DES
    B.    AES-128
    C.    RC4-128
    D.    AES-256

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 37
    Which Cisco firewall platform supports Cisco NGE?

    A.    FWSM
    B.    Cisco ASA 5505
    C.    Cisco ASA 5580
    D.    Cisco ASA 5525-X

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 38
    Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE?

    A.    3DES
    B.    AES
    C.    DES
    D.    RSA

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 39
    Which encryption and authentication algorithms does Cisco recommend when deploying a Cisco NGE supported VPN solution?

    A.    AES-GCM and SHA-2
    B.    3DES and DH
    C.    AES-CBC and SHA-1
    D.    3DES and SHA-1

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 40
    An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?

    A.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
    split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
    split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
    B.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
    split-tunnel-policy tunnelall
    split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
    C.    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
    split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
    split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
    D.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-network-list splitlist
    E.    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
    crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224

    Answer: A

    300-209 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/300-209.html

    Large amount of free 300-209 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDYnF5Vk16OS1tc1E

    You may also need:

    300-206 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDQ0xqNGttYzZGYk0

    300-208 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDMXlWOHdFVkZmREU

    300-210 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDRF9kSExjc1FqREU

  • [May 2018] Cisco 300-208 Latest Dumps Free Download From Lead2pass 365q

    Cisco Exam 300-208 PDF Dump Free Download In Lead2pass:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-208.html

    QUESTION 31
    Which three components comprise the Cisco ISE profiler? (Choose three.)

    A.    the sensor, which contains one or more probes
    B.    the probe manager
    C.    a monitoring tool that connects to the Cisco ISE
    D.    the trigger, which activates ACLs
    E.    an analyzer, which uses configured policies to evaluate endpoints
    F.    a remitter tool, which fails over to redundant profilers (more…)

  • [May 2018] Lead2pass Offering Free 300-206 Dumps Files For Free Downloading By 300-206 Exam Candidates 315q

    Lead2pass Provides Free 300-206 Exam Dumps PDF:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-206.html

    QUESTION 31
    Where in the Cisco ASA appliance CLI are Active/Active Failover configuration parameters configured?

    A.    admin context
    B.    customer context
    C.    system execution space
    D.    within the system execution space and admin context
    E.    within each customer context and admin context

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 32
    Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary protocols?

    A.    network
    B.    ICMP
    C.    protocol
    D.    TCP-UDP
    E.    service

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 33
    Which Cisco ASA show command groups the xlates and connections information together in its output?

    A.    show conn
    B.    show conn detail
    C.    show xlate
    D.    show asp
    E.    show local-host

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 34
    When a Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode, within which configuration are the interfaces allocated to the security contexts?

    A.    each security context
    B.    system configuration
    C.    admin context (context with the “admin” role)
    D.    context startup configuration file (.cfg file)

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 35
    When troubleshooting redundant interface operations on the Cisco ASA, which configuration should be verified?

    A.    The nameif configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
    B.    The MAC address configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
    C.    The active interface is sending periodic hellos to the standby interface.
    D.    The IP address configuration on the logical redundant interface is correct.
    E.    The duplex and speed configuration on the logical redundant interface are correct.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 36
    On the Cisco ASA, where are the Layer 5-7 policy maps applied?

    A.    inside the Layer 3-4 policy map
    B.    inside the Layer 3-4 class map
    C.    inside the Layer 5-7 class map
    D.    inside the Layer 3-4 service policy
    E.    inside the Layer 5-7 service policy

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 37
    A Cisco ASA requires an additional feature license to enable which feature?

    A.    transparent firewall
    B.    cut-thru proxy
    C.    threat detection
    D.    botnet traffic filtering
    E.    TCP normalizer

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 38
    Which four are IPv6 First Hop Security technologies? (Choose four.)

    A.    Send
    B.    Dynamic ARP Inspection
    C.    Router Advertisement Guard
    D.    Neighbor Discovery Inspection
    E.    Traffic Storm Control
    F.    Port Security
    G.    DHCPv6 Guard

    Answer: ACDG

    QUESTION 39
    IPv6 addresses in an organization’s network are assigned using Stateless Address
    Autoconfiguration. What is a security concern of using SLAAC for IPv6 address assignment?

    A.    Man-In-The-Middle attacks or traffic interception using spoofed IPv6 Router Advertisements
    B.    Smurf or amplification attacks using spoofed IPv6 ICMP Neighbor Solicitations
    C.    Denial of service attacks using TCP SYN floods
    D.    Denial of Service attacks using spoofed IPv6 Router Solicitations

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 40
    Which two parameters must be configured before you enable SCP on a router? (Choose two.)

    A.    SSH
    B.    authorization
    C.    ACLs
    D.    NTP
    E.    TACACS+

    Answer: AB

    300-206 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/300-206.html

    Large amount of free 300-206 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDQ0xqNGttYzZGYk0

    You may also need:

    300-208 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDMXlWOHdFVkZmREU

    300-209 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDYnF5Vk16OS1tc1E

    300-210 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDRF9kSExjc1FqREU

  • [May 2018] Lead2pass Latest 300-180 PDF Guarantee 100% Pass 300-180 Exam 374q

    Lead2pass Latest Cisco 300-180 Exam Questions Free Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-180.html

    QUESTION 81
    For a KVM session to be successful, which two of these need to be done? (Choose two.)

    A.    The Cisco IMC IP address needs to be assigned on the Admin tab.
    B.    The Cisco IMC IP address needs to be in the same subnet as the management IP.
    C.    The Cisco IMC needs to be upgraded to the same version as the UCS Manager.
    D.    The server needs to be fully discovered.

    Answer: AD

    QUESTION 82
    A customer is configuring SAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain.
    The customer notices that pinning is not working and traffic from the vHBA is not passing over the Fibre Channel uplink port. Which of these must be done for pinning to work correctly?

    A.    Include the SAN pin group in a vHBA policy and then include the vHBA policy in the service profile
    that is assigned to that server.
    B.    Include the SAN policy in the Cisco UCS Manager to match with pin groups on the fabric interconnect.
    C.    The customer must have Cisco UCS Manager version 2.0 or above.
    D.    Fibre Channel switch mode needs to be configured first.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 83
    Refer to exhibit. A Cisco UCS admin is troubleshooting an issue with a vNIC not coming up on a blade. When looking at the CLI of the “Fabric Interconnect”,the admin runs this command to view the status of the interface.
    Which option describes a possible reason why the interface is stuck in an “initializing” state?

    831

    A.    The service profile is not applied to a blade.
    B.    The VLANs defined on the vNIC are not defined on a matching uplink port.
    C.    The uplink port is down.
    D.    The QoS policy on the vNIC is invalid.
    E.    The MTU on the vNIC is higher than the MTU configured in the QoS system class.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 84
    Which two options are causes for failure of a Cisco C-Series server that is configured to boot from SAN? (Choose two.)

    A.    The boot LUN ID is not 0.
    B.    The ISCSI target is only available via one via one path through the network.
    C.    C-Series does not support boot from SAN.
    D.    The KVM dongle is attached to the front of the server with a USB stick installed.
    E.    Under the FCoE properties on the vNIC adapter, the FCoE VLAN ID is set to 10.
    F.    The boot table for fc0 has not been configured.

    Answer: DF

    QUESTION 85
    Which command on the Fabric Interconnect displays packet statistics for a given QoS group and MTU size?

    A.    show policy-map interface ethernet x/y
    B.    show queuing interface ethernet x/y
    C.    show interface ethernet x/y
    D.    show class-map type qos
    E.    show interface queuing ethernet x/y

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 86
    A Cisco UCS admin is trying to integrate Cisco UCS Manager with Active Directory Authentication. After the configuration is done, the admin is still unable to log in using LDAP credentials. When running a debug on the Fabric Interconnect, this error is displayed:

    ldap_build_roles_and_locales_from_attr: No attr for usr profile

    Which step was missed in the configuration?

    A.    The LDAP provider was not configured correctly.
    B.    The proper RBAC role(s) were not assigned to the user.
    C.    Cisco UCS Manager 2.1 is required for LDAP integration.
    D.    The “Attribute” field in Cisco UCS was left blank.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 87
    Which three requirements are needed to configure a blade to boot successfully from Fibre Channel? (Choose three.)

    A.    zoning
    B.    LUN masking
    C.    WWPN device alias
    D.    boot from SAN policy
    E.    SAN connectivity policy
    F.    port assignment
    G.    target WWPN needs to be set in the boot from SAN policy

    Answer: ABD

    QUESTION 88
    Which description of a core file is true?

    A.    It is generated by a system failure.
    B.    It is generated by a process failure.
    C.    It is generated by a component failure.
    D.    It is generated by a hardware failure.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 89
    Which logs are used to troubleshoot hardware failure?

    A.    system event log
    B.    audit log
    C.    accounting log
    D.    gateway logs
    E.    system log

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 90
    A UCS Admin is trying to launch the KVM console but it is failing to launch. All IP Pools for mgmt are configured and the CIMC has an address in UCSM. They SSH to the fabric Interconnect and run an ethanalyzer while issuing a ping from their local PC to the KVM IP address. The ping is successful but they do not see the ICMP requests and replies displayed in the capture. Here is the filter they used:

    FIA(nxos)# ethanalyzer local interface mgmt display-filter icmp limit-captured-frames 0

    What could be the reason pings are not seen in the capture and the KVM is failing to load?

    A.    Java settings are preventing the KVM from loading
    B.    There is a duplicate IP address for that CIMC address
    C.    The switch upstream from the FI has the wrong vlan configured
    D.    The CIMC IP pool is in the same subnet as the Fabric Interconnects mgmt 0 interface

    Answer: B

    300-180 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/300-180.html

    Large amount of free 300-180 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=108Bd0NBc2wWwiFC-bUg8eLE5zS0n9gVN

    You may also need:

    300-165 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDSkhBVngxX0Z3Y0k

    300-170 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDdHhmcTBIbGM4bmc

    300-175 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDVDYyRldqb1AzenM

  • [May 2018] Free Version Lead2pass Cisco 300-175 PDF Dumps With Exam Questions Download 294q

    Lead2pass 100% Valid 300-175 Exam Questions PDF Free Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-175.html

    QUESTION 31
    How many links are there between a second-generation IOM (Cisco UCS 2204 or 2208) and a third- generation half-width blade (Cisco UCS B200 M3 or B22 M3) in a Cisco UCS system?

    A.    1
    B.    2
    C.    4
    D.    8

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 32
    Which policy would you change to form a port channel between a Cisco UCS 6248 and a Cisco UCS 2208?

    A.    link aggregation policy
    B.    chassis discovery policy
    C.    IOM connection policy
    D.    link discovery policy

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 33
    The Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects offer a new feature that allows dynamic port allocation for all of the 10 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. What are these ports called?

    A.    universal ports
    B.    flex ports
    C.    unified ports
    D.    converged ports

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 34
    In which situation would you be required to change a Cisco UCS system from end-host mode to switching mode?

    A.    Design requirements call for the use of fabric failover.
    B.    Fabric interconnect is connecting to disjoint Layer 2 networks upstream.
    C.    HSRP routers are directly connected to the fabric interconnect.
    D.    Upstream Cisco Nexus 5000 is configured for vPC.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 35
    Drag and Drop Question
    Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate Cisco UCS adapter on the right, where the adapter supports that characterishtic.

    351

    Answer:

    352

    QUESTION 36
    Drag and Drop Question
    The Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a Cisco Unified Computing B-Series server provides a number of features. Drag the functionality on the left to the appropriate feature on the right.

    361

    Answer:

    362

    300-175 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/300-175.html

    Large amount of free 300-175 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDVDYyRldqb1AzenM

    You may also need:

    300-165 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDSkhBVngxX0Z3Y0k

    300-170 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDdHhmcTBIbGM4bmc

  • [May 2018] Lead2pass Latest Cisco 300-135 Exam Questions Free Downloading 195q

    Lead2pass 300-135 Dumps PDF Free Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-135.html

    QUESTION 41
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been operated indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to Isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    On which device is the fault condition located?

    A.    R1
    B.    R2
    C.    R3
    D.    R4
    E.    DSW1
    F.    DSW2
    G.    ASW1
    H.    ASW2

    Answer: G
    Explanation:
    Since the Clients are getting an APIPA we know that DHCP is not working. However, upon closer examination of the ASW1 configuration we can see that the problem is not with DHCP, but the fact that the trunks on the port channels are only allowing VLANs 1-9, when the clients belong to VLAN 10. VLAN 10 is not traversing the trunk on ASW1, so the problem is with the trunk configuration on ASW1.

    QUESTION 42
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    The fault condition is related to which technology?

    A.    NTP
    B.    Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
    C.    Access Vlans
    D.    Port Security
    E.    VLAN ACL / Port ACL
    F.    Switch Virtual Interface

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Since the Clients are getting an APIPA we know that DHCP is not working. However, upon closer examination of the ASW1 configuration we can see that the problem is not with DHCP, but the fact that the trunks on the port channels are only allowing VLANs 1-9, when the clients belong to VLAN 10. VLAN 10 is not traversing the trunk on ASW1, so the problem is with switch to switch connectivity, specifically the trunk configuration on ASW1.

    QUESTION 43
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    What is the solution to the fault condition?

    A.    In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13 command, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
    B.    In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13, port-channel 23, then configure switchport trunk none allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200 commands.
    C.    In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23 command, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
    D.    In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23, port-channel, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,200 commands.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    We need to allow VLANs 10 and 200 on the trunks to restore full connectivity. This can be accomplished by issuing the “switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200” command on the port channels used as trunks in DSW1.

    Ticket 2 : ACCESS VLAN

    Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

    – Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
    – EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
    – OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
    – Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
    – BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
    – HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches

    The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
    This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
    In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
    DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
    R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.
    R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside (209.65.0.0/24) network.
    ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
    NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
    The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
    The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1 and DSW2.
    In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
    DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
    The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
    Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.

    Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and solution.

    Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
    Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
    Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
    Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution

    Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241

    Solution:

    Steps need to follow as below:
    – When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig — — Client will be getting 169.X.X.X.
    – On ASW1 port Fa1/0/ 1 & Fa1/0/2 access port VLAN 10 was assigned which is using IP address 10.2.1.0/24.
    Sh run ——- & check for running config of int fa1/0/1 & fa1/0/2 ====================================================

    431

    ====================================================

    Here we are not able to see access Vlan10 configured for Port Fa1/0/1 & Fa1/0/2 Change required: On ASW1, for configuring Access Vlan under interface fa1/0/1 & 1/0/2 we have to enable command switchport access vlan 10

    QUESTION 44
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    What is the solution to the fault condition?

    A.    R1
    B.    R2
    C.    R3
    D.    R4
    E.    DSW1
    F.    DSW2
    G.    ASW1
    H.    ASW2

    Answer: G
    Explanation:
    The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.

    QUESTION 45
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.

    The fault condition is related to switch technology?

    A.    NTP
    B.    Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
    C.    Loop Prevention
    D.    Access Vlans
    E.    VLAN ACL Port ACL
    F.    Switch Virtual Interface
    G.    Port Security

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.

    QUESTION 46
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    What is the solution to the fault condition?

    A.    In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 ?2, then switchport mode access vlan 10 command.
    B.    In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 ?2, then switchport access mode vlan 10 command.
    C.    In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 ?2, then switchport vlan 10 access command.
    D.    In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 ?2, then switchport access vlan 10 command.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.

    Ticket 3 : OSPF Authentication

    Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

    – Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
    – EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
    – OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
    – Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
    – BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
    – HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches

    The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
    This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
    In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
    DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
    R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.
    R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside (209.65.0.0/24) network.
    ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
    NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
    The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
    The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1 and DSW2.
    In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
    DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
    The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
    Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.

    Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and solution.

    Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
    Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
    Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
    Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution

    Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241

    Solution:

    Steps need to follow as below:
    – When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —– Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
    – IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2 but not from R1

    461

    – Check for neighborship of ospf
    sh ip ospf nei —– Only one neighborship is forming with R2 & i.e. with R3
    Since R2 is connected to R1 & R3 with routing protocol ospf than there should be 2 neighbors seen but only one is seen
    – Need to check running config of R2 & R3 for interface
    Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 on R2

    462

    – Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0 on R1

    – Change required: On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf authentication message-digest

    QUESTION 47
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    On which device is the fault condition located?

    A.    R1
    B.    R2
    C.    R3
    D.    R4
    E.    DSW1
    F.    DSW2
    G.    ASW1
    H.    ASW2

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    As you will see, the problem in this situation is with OSPF on R1. It is missing the “ip ospf authentication message-digest” command on the Serial0/0/0/0.12 interface.

    QUESTION 48
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    The fault condition is related to which technology?

    A.    BGP
    B.    NTP
    C.    IP NAT
    D.    IPv4 OSPF Routing
    E.    IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
    F.    IPv6 OSPF Routing
    G.    IPv4 layer 3 security

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The problem in this situation is with OSPF on router 1. It is missing the “ip ospf authentication messagedigest” command on the Serial0/0/0/0.12 interface.
    The problem statement tells us that the two routers are not able to become OSPF neighbors.

    300-135 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/300-135.html

    Large amount of free 300-135 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDZmFQVlZDZnpLejA

    Maybe you also need:

    300-101 exam dumps:  https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDakxVRXg3aUpmTE0

    300-115 exam dumps:  https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDM0pqaFJWUXVuM2M

  • Pages: 1 2
Posts navigation