web analytics

Cisco Exam

Cisco Exam

  • [April 2018] Lead2pass 840-425 Exam Questions Guarantee 840-425 Certification Exam 100% Success 191q

    Lead2pass Free 840-425 Exam Questions Download 100% Pass 840-425 Exam:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/840-425.html

    QUESTION 21
    Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

    A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
    B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
    C.    Should focus on measurable results.
    D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
    E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 22
    Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

    A.    Benefits accounting.
    B.    Benefits identification.
    C.    Benefits roles.
    D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
    E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

    Answer: BDE

    QUESTION 23
    Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

    A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
    B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
    C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
    D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 24
    How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

    A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
    B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
    C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
    D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 25
    Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

    A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
    B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
    C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
    D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
    E.    Increase revenue and margins.

    Answer: ABD

    QUESTION 26
    Which option is the best description for NPV?

    A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
    B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
    C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
    D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
    E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 27
    Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

    A.    Increased NPV.
    B.    Lower project costs.
    C.    Process efficiencies.
    D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 28
    Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

    A.    Increased NPV.
    B.    Lower project costs.
    C.    Process efficiencies.
    D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

    Answer: CD

    QUESTION 29
    Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

    A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
    B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
    C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
    D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

    Answer: AD

    QUESTION 30
    What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

    A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
    B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
    C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
    D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

    Answer: B

    840-425 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/840-425.html

    Large amount of free 840-425 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDeERsQTNwNG1Sbjg

  • [April 2018] Free Lead2pass Cisco 500-701 PDF Dumps With New Update Exam Questions 72q

    Free Lead2pass Cisco 500-701 PDF Dumps With The Latest Update Exam Questions:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/500-701.html

    QUESTION 21
    Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

    A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
    B.    Single Split Server Deployment
    C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
    D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 22
    How is TIP defined?

    A.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non- immersive endpoints.
    B.    TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
    C.    TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
    D.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

    A.    TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
    B.    TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
    C.    TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
    D.    TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 24
    Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?

    A.    SDKs specify how software components should interact
    B.    APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
    C.    SDKs can be used without APIs.
    D.    APIs can be used without SDKs.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 25
    Which type of API is used to configure settings on Cisco Meeting Server?

    A.    REST
    B.    XML-RPC
    C.    SOAP
    D.    XMP-RPC

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 26
    Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?

    A.    802.1
    B.    SIP
    C.    Q.931
    D.    SDP

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/H-323/configuration/15-mt/voi-h323-overview.html#GUID-8130E479-580A-4450-91EA-A1CDCE96548A

    QUESTION 27
    What is a function of a call control solution?

    A.    To make, monitor and maintain calls
    B.    To provide an audio and video interface for the user
    C.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
    D.    To schedule calls

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 28
    What do Enterprise Settingson Cisco Spark determine?

    A.    Where user information comes from.
    B.    BOT integration
    C.    API integration
    D.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 29
    Which management solution works with endpointsregistered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

    A.    Prime
    B.    CMA
    C.    CMR
    D.    TMS

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 30
    Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

    A.    TelePresence Server
    B.    Spark
    C.    Cisco Meeting Server
    D.    Cisco WebEx

    Answer: B

    500-701 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/500-701.html

    Large amount of free 500-701 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1ZCgBBw9T0SQ9BrVBj71NEjrw2YYoWjLt

  • [April 2018] Lead2pass 500-265 New Questions Free Download

    Lead2pass 100% Valid 500-265 Exam Questions PDF Free Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/500-265.html

    QUESTION 21
    Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

    A.    VLAN attacks
    B.    IP source routing
    C.    MAC address floods
    D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
    E.    Spanning-tree attacks

    (more…)

  • [April 2018] Lead2pass 2018 New Cisco 500-052 Braindump Free Download 91q

    Lead2pass 500-052 Exam Questions Guarantee 500-052 Certification Exam 100% Success:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/500-052.html

    QUESTION 61
    Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

    A.    collect trace files
    B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
    C.    view syslog messages
    D.    perform backup and restore functions
    E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

    (more…)

  • [April 2018] Free Download Lead2pass Cisco 400-251 VCE And PDF Dumps 359q

    Free Download Of Lead2pass 400-251 Real Exam Questions:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/400-251.html

    QUESTION 21
    Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two)

    211

    A.    It provides backward compability with legacy IPv6 inspection
    B.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z1 to Z2.
    C.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z2 to Z1.
    D.    It inspect TCP,UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic in both direction between z1 and z2.
    E.    It passes TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from z1 to z2.
    F.    It provide backward compatibility with legacy IPv4 inseption.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 22
    In which class of applications security threads does HTTP header manipulation reside?

    A.    Session management
    B.    Parameter manipulation
    C.    Software tampering
    D.    Exception managements

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cgisecurity.com/owasp/html/ch11s04.html
    Session management doesn’t have anything to do with HTTP header

    QUESTION 23
    What is the most commonly used technology to establish an encrypted HTTP connection?

    A.    the HTTP/1.1 Upgrade header
    B.    the HTTP/1.0 Upgrade header
    C.    Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
    D.    HTTPS

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 24
    What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?

    A.    origin authentication of DNS data
    B.    data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
    C.    access restriction of DNS zone transfers
    D.    storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 25
    What are the two mechanism that are used to authenticate OSPFv3 packets?(Choose two)

    A.    MD5
    B.    ESP
    C.    PLAIN TEXT
    D.    AH
    E.    SHA

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 26
    You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:

    (A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB
    (B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA
    (C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB
    (D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be “inside”.
    (E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.

    If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?

    A.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
    B.    context contexta
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextb
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
    C.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
    D.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2
    E.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 27
    Which statement about the cisco anyconnect web security module is true ?

    A.    It is VPN client software that works over the SSl protocol.
    B.    It is an endpoint component that is used with smart tunnel in a clientless SSL VPN.
    C.    It operates as an NAC agent when it is configured with the Anyconnect VPN client.
    D.    It is deployed on endpoints to route HTTP traffic to SCANsafe

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 28
    Which two statements about the SeND protocol are true? (Choose two)

    A.    It uses IPsec as a baseline mechanism
    B.    It supports an autoconfiguration mechanism
    C.    It must be enabled before you can configure IPv6 addresses
    D.    It supports numerous custom neighbor discovery messages
    E.    It counters neighbor discovery threats
    F.    It logs IPv6-related threats to an external log server

    Answer: BE

    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

    400-251 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/400-251.html

    Large amount of free 400-251 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDU1JrNmttR1dfUm8

  • [April 2018] Lead2pass 400-201 New Questions For Passing The 400-201 Certification Exam 647q

    Lead2pass Cisco New Exam 400-201 VCE Files Free Instant Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/400-201.html

    QUESTION 21
    What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

    A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
    B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
    C.    Show mpls forwading-table
    D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
    E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 22
    Drag and Drop Questions

    221

    Answer:

    222

    QUESTION 23
    Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
    Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

    231

    A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
    B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
    C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
    D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

    QUESTION 24
    Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

    A.    source MAC address
    B.    source port
    C.    source IP address
    D.    destination IP address
    E.    IP protocol ID
    F.    destination MAC address

    Answer: BCD

    QUESTION 25
    An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

    A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
    B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
    C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
    D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
    E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

    Answer: AC
    Explanation:
    BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

    QUESTION 26
    A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

    A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
    B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
    C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
    D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

    QUESTION 27
    Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

    A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
    B.    section monitoring
    C.    reserved (RES)
    D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
    E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 28
    Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

    A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
    B.    normal response mode (NRM)
    C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
    D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
    E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

    Answer: ABE
    Explanation:
    Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

    400-201 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/400-201.html

    Large amount of free 400-201 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDMExNMWJIYTlIcUU

  • [April 2018] Lead2pass Cisco 400-101 VCE And PDF Instant Download 953q

    Lead2pass New Updated 400-101 Braindump Free Get:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html

    QUESTION 21
    Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

    A.    Horizon
    B.    Nova
    C.    Neutron
    D.    Keystone

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 22
    Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured as the R1 neighbor in area 51, but R2 fails to receive the configured summary route.
    Which action can you take to correct the problem?

    221

    A.    Replace the summary-address command with the area-range command.
    B.    Configure a summary address under R1interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
    C.    Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0.
    D.    Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1.
    E.    Configure ip ospf network broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent?(Choose two.)

    A.    The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number.
    B.    The router must share a common process ID.
    C.    The router must be in different areas.
    D.    The routers must share a common network segment.
    E.    The routers must be configured with the neighbor command.
    F.    The routers must be in the same area.

    Answer: DF

    QUESTION 24
    Which two statements are true about control plane policing? (Choose two.)

    A.    Control plane policing will affect only traffic that is destined to the route processor.
    B.    Access lists that are used in policies for control plane policing must not use the log keyword.
    C.    Access lists that use the deny rule in control plane policing do not progress to the next class.
    D.    The log keyword can be used but the log-input keyword must not be used in policing.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 25
    Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three)

    A.    metric
    B.    authentication type
    C.    link state
    D.    IP subnet
    E.    external route tag
    F.    subnet mask

    Answer: ACF

    QUESTION 26
    Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address.
    Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?

    A.    NetFlow can export flows only to a extermal flow collector
    B.    show ip cache flow
    C.    ip accounting
    D.    ip flow-top-talkers

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 27
    Refer to the exhibit. R1, R2 and R3 are in different satelite offices of the same prganization.
    A multicast video source is located behind R1.R3 frequently receives video streams intend for R2.
    These streams saturate the available bandwidth of R3.
    Which configuration change can alleviate the congestion on R3?

    271

    A.    Configure R3 to send an immediate-leave message when necessary to stop receiving unwanted traffic.
    B.    Configure IGMP snooping on R1, R2, and R3.
    C.    Place a PIM filter on the switches and interfaces that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
    D.    Enable IGMP snooping on all switches that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
    E.    Place a PIM filter on the switch and interface that connect to R1 only.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 28
    With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?

    A.    TCP
    B.    SNMP
    C.    UDP
    D.    XMPP

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 29
    Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)

    A.    fast retransmission
    B.    fast recovery
    C.    low-latency queuing
    D.    IP service level agreements
    E.    congestion-avoidance algorithm

    Answer: CD
    Explanation:
    In the actual exam, if becomes single choice question just choose C.

    QUESTION 30
    Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)

    A.    It forwards Ethernet frames.
    B.    It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops
    C.    It supports MAC address aging.
    D.    It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
    E.    It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
    F.    It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

    Answer: ACD

    400-101 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html

    Large amount of free 400-101 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDZ0lrZUFjNWtFYlk

  • [April 2018] Lead2pass Latest 400-051 Free Dumps Guarantee 400-051 Certification Exam 100% Success 534q

    Lead2pass Latest 400-051 PDF Guarantee 100% Pass 400-051 Exam:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/400-051.html

    QUESTION 21
    Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

    211

    A.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
    event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
    match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
    B.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
    event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
    Manager
    will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
    C.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
    configuration on both IP phones.
    D.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
    E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
    service configuration on both IP phones.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

    QUESTION 22
    What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

    A.    It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
    B.    It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
    C.    It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
    D.    It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
    E.    It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

    QUESTION 23
    Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

    A.    Location CAC
    B.    RSVP CAC
    C.    H.323 gatekeeper
    D.    intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
    E.    visiting cluster’s LBM hub

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

    QUESTION 24
    Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

    A.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
    B.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
    C.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
    D.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
    E.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
    F.    Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

    Answer: BD
    Explanation:
    Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

    QUESTION 25
    What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

    A.    1
    B.    up to 2
    C.    up to 3
    D.    up to 4
    E.    up to 5

    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

    QUESTION 26
    Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

    A.    null
    B.    none
    C.    directory URI
    D.    default
    E.    any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

    QUESTION 27
    Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

    A.    CCD advertising service
    B.    CCD requesting service
    C.    SAF forwarder
    D.    SAF enabled trunks
    E.    CCD registration service

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

    QUESTION 28
    Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

    A.    Low
    B.    Medium
    C.    High
    D.    Secure
    E.    Flex

    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

    400-051 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/400-051.html

    Large amount of free 400-051 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDcVpjV1ZNcjVzaW8

  • [April 2018] Free Updated Lead2pass 352-001 Exam Dumps Download 510q

    Free Version Lead2pass Cisco 352-001 PDF Dumps With Exam Questions Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/352-001.html

    QUESTION 21
    Refer to the exhibit. All routers in this network are configured to place all interfaces in OSPF area 5. R3 is the designated router on the 10.1.5.0/24 network. If you examine the OSPF database on R4, what would the network (type 2) LSA, generated by R3, contain? (more…)

  • [April 2018] New Released Exam 300-365 PDF Free From the Lead2pass 71q

    Lead2pass New Released Cisco 300-365 Exam Questions From Cisco Exam Center:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-365.html

    QUESTION 21
    You have just added a new MSE to Prime Infrastructure and want to synchronize the MSE with your 5508 WLC. which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ.
    You notice that NMSP messages are failing between the two devices.
    What traffic needs to be allowed on the Firewall to ensure the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?

    A.    UDP 16113
    B.    TCP 1613
    C.    TCP 16113
    D.    UDP 1613 (more…)

  • [April 2018] 2018 Cisco 300-360 Dumps Free Download 100% Pass Promised By Lead2pass 140q

    Lead2pass 2018 New 300-360 Exam PDF Ensure 300-360 Certification Exam Pass 100%:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-360.html

    QUESTION 21
    An engineer is assigned to provide wireless coverage in a provincial capital building. Due to the age and historic nature of the building, the ability to run new copper Ethernet cable to desired AP locations is limited. Which requirement should the engineer specify to overcome this restriction?

    A.    Deploy access points where the survey indicates and connect them via fiber optic cable, using a mediaadapter, and locally provide power.
    B.    Deploy access points to each phone location converting two spare pairs of copper from the phone line toEthernet and locally provide power.
    C.    Deploy access point devices where limited cable can be run or exists and connect high-gain antennas andincrease Tx power to increase cell size.
    D.    Deploy RAP where limited cable can be run or exists, and extend coverage using MAP.

    (more…)

  • [April 2018] Updated 300-320 New Questions From Lead2pass Free Downloading 558q

    Updated Lead2pass Cisco 300-320 Braindump Free Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-320.html

    QUESTION 21
    Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?

    A.    OTV
    B.    VSS
    C.    vPC
    D.    VDC

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 22
    Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?

    A.    OTV
    B.    VSS
    C.    vPC
    D.    VLAN

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?

    A.    connect to other data centers
    B.    connect to the access layer
    C.    connect to the end users
    D.    connect to mobile devices

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html
    “Edge Device
    The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
    […]
    Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. ”

    QUESTION 24
    Which QoS architecture provides scalability of implementation?

    A.    IntServ
    B.    DiffServ
    C.    LLQ
    D.    RSVP

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 25
    Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications?

    A.    IntServ
    B.    DiffServ
    C.    LLQ
    D.    ToS
    E.    DSCP

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    DiffServ is known as “Hop-by-Hop” and not “End-to-End”

    QUESTION 26
    CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

    A.    MPLS
    B.    IEEE 802.1W
    C.    IEEE 802.1Q
    D.    IEEE 802.1S

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 27
    Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?

    A.    UDP, because it is connectionless
    B.    SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
    C.    Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
    D.    MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 28
    What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?

    A.    It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
    B.    Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
    C.    There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
    D.    SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 29
    The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?

    A.    PIM
    B.    IGMP
    C.    underlying IGP
    D.    MSDP

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr.html
    “Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”

    QUESTION 30
    Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?

    A.    Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
    B.    Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
    C.    Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
    D.    Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.

    Answer: C

    300-320 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/300-320.html

    Large amount of free 300-320 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDUGlzdWdZNHUwZ28

    You may also need:

    300-101 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDbHBiVVk1ZVhpOGc

    300-115 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDM0pqaFJWUXVuM2M

  • [April 2018] New Lead2pass Cisco 300-210 New Questions Free Download 365q

    New Released Exam 300-210 PDF Free From the Lead2pass:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-210.html

    QUESTION 41
    Which version of AsyncOS for web is required to deploy the Web Security Appliance as a CWS connector?

    A.    AsyncOS version 7.7.x
    B.    AsyncOS version 7.5.x
    C.    AsyncOS version 7.5.7
    D.    AsyncOS version 7.5.0

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 42
    What are three benefits of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Solution? (Choose three.)

    A.    It can protect against command-injection and directory-traversal attacks.
    B.    It provides Internet transport while maintaining corporate security policies.
    C.    It provides secure remote access to managed computers.
    D.    It provides clientless remote access to multiple network-based systems.
    E.    It enforces security policies, regardless of the user location.
    F.    It uses ACLs to determine best-route connections for clients in a secure environment.

    Answer: BCE

    QUESTION 43
    Which Cisco technology secures the network through malware filtering, category-based control, and reputation-based control?

    A.    Cisco ASA 5500 Series appliances
    B.    Cisco remote-access VPNs
    C.    Cisco IronPort WSA
    D.    Cisco IPS

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 44
    Which antispam technology assumes that email from server A, which has a history of distributing spam, is more likely to be spam than email from server B, which does not have a history of distributing spam?

    A.    Reputation-based filtering
    B.    Context-based filtering
    C.    Cisco ESA multilayer approach
    D.    Policy-based filtering

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 45
    Which Cisco technology is a modular security service that combines a stateful inspection firewall with next-generation application awareness, providing near real-time threat protection?

    A.    Cisco ASA 5500 series appliances
    B.    Cisco ASA CX Context-Aware Security
    C.    WSA
    D.    Internet Edge Firewall / IPS

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 46
    Which three statements about Cisco ASA CX are true? (Choose three.)

    A.    It groups multiple ASAs as a single logical device.
    B.    It can perform context-aware inspection.
    C.    It provides high-density security services with high availability.
    D.    It uses policy-based interface controls to inspect and forward TCP- and UDP-based packets.
    E.    It can make context-aware decisions.
    F.    It uses four cooperative architectural constructs to build the firewall.

    Answer: BEF

    QUESTION 47
    During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?

    A.    cxsc fail
    B.    cxsc fail-close
    C.    cxsc fail-open
    D.    cxssp fail-close

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 48
    Cisco AVC allows control of which three of the following? (Choose three.)

    A.    Facebook
    B.    LWAPP
    C.    IPv6
    D.    MySpace
    E.    Twitter
    F.    WCCP

    Answer: ADE

    QUESTION 49
    The Web Security Appliance has identities defined for faculty and staff, students, and default access. The faculty and staff identity identifies users based on the source network and authenticated credentials. The identity for students identifies users based on the source network along with successful authentication credentials. The global identity is for guest users not authenticated against the domain.
    Recently, a change was made to the organization’s security policy to allow faculty and staff access to a social network website, and the security group changed the access policy for faculty and staff to allow the social networking category.
    Which are the two most likely reasons that the category is still being blocked for a faculty and staff user? (Choose two.)

    A.    The user is being matched against the student policy because the user did not enter credentials.
    B.    The user is using an unsupported browser so the credentials are not working.
    C.    The social networking URL was entered into a custom URL category that is blocked in the access policy.
    D.    The user is connected to the wrong network and is being blocked by the student policy.
    E.    The social networking category is being allowed but the AVC policy is still blocking the website.

    Answer: CE

    QUESTION 50
    Which five system management protocols are supported by the Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)

    A.    SNMPv2c
    B.    SNMPv1
    C.    SNMPv2
    D.    SNMPv3
    E.    syslog
    F.    SDEE
    G.    SMTP

    Answer: ABCFG

    300-210 dumps full version (PDF&VCE): https://www.lead2pass.com/300-210.html

    Large amount of free 300-210 exam questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDRF9kSExjc1FqREU

    You may also need:

    300-206 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDQ0xqNGttYzZGYk0

    300-208 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDMXlWOHdFVkZmREU

    300-209 exam dumps: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDYnF5Vk16OS1tc1E

  • [April 2018] Latest Released Cisco 300-209 Exam Question Free Download From Lead2pass 319q

    300-209 Exam Dump Free Updation Availabe In Lead2pass:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-209.html

    QUESTION 21
    Which statement is true when implementing a router with a dynamic public IP address in a crypto map based site-to-site VPN?

    A.    The router must be configured with a dynamic crypto map.
    B.    Certificates are always used for phase 1 authentication.
    C.    The tunnel establishment will fail if the router is configured as a responder only.
    D.    The router and the peer router must have NAT traversal enabled.

    (more…)

  • [April 2018] Lead2pass New Released Cisco 300-206 Exam Questions From Cisco Exam Center 297q

    Lead2pass Offering New 300-206 Exam PDF And 300-206 Exam VCE Dumps For Free Downloading:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-206.html

    QUESTION 21
    Which technology provides forwarding-plane abstraction to support Layer 2 to Layer 7 network services in Cisco Nexus 1000V?

    A.    Virtual Service Node
    B.    Virtual Service Gateway
    C.    Virtual Service Data Path
    D.    Virtual Service Agent

    (more…)

  • [April 2018] Latest 300-180 Dumps PDF Free Download In Lead2pass 100% 300-180 Exam Pass Guaranteed 374q

    Latest Lead2pass 300-180 Exam Free 300-180 Dumps Download:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-180.html

    QUESTION 71
    In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)

    A.    backup
    B.    grid
    C.    redund
    D.    n-plus-1
    E.    non-redund
    F.    plus-1 (more…)

  • [April 2018] Lead2pass Free 300-175 Exam Questions Download 100% Pass 300-175 Exam 276q

    Lead2pass Free Cisco 300-175 Braindumps VCE Updated:

    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-175.html

    QUESTION 21
    If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?

    A.    9
    B.    16
    C.    24
    D.    48
    E.    54
    F.    112 (more…)

  • Pages: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 ... 28 29
Posts navigation