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  • [March 2018] Lead2pass Free Cisco 200-105 Braindumps VCE Updated 497q

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    QUESTION 31
    Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel command and it returned this output.
    Which information is provided by the Load value?

    (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

    A.    There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
    B.    A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
    C.    Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
    D.    In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network
    media before transmitting.
    E.    The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.

    Answer: ABE
    Explanation:
    Half-duplex Ethernet is defined in the original 802.3 Ethernet and Cisco says you only use one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire. It also uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if a collision does occur. If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions. Half-duplex Ethernet–typically 10BaseT–is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient as Cisco sees it, because a large 10BaseT network will usually only give you 3- to 4Mbps–at most. Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires, instead of one wire pair like half duplex. Also, full duplex uses a point-to-point connection between the transmitter of the transmitting device and the receiver of the receiving device, which means that with full-duplex data transfer, you get a faster data transfer compared to half duplex. And because the transmitted data is sent on a different set of wires than the received data, no collisions occur. The reason you don’t need to worry about collisions is because now Full-duplex Ethernet is like a freeway with multiple lanes instead of the single-lane road provided by half duplex. Full-duplex Ethernet is supposed to offer 100 percent efficiency in both directions; this means you can get 20Mbps with a 10Mbps Ethernet running full duplex, or 200Mbps for FastEthernet.

    QUESTION 32
    Which router command can be used to determine the status of Serial 0/0?

    A.    show ip route
    B.    show interfaces
    C.    show s0/0 status
    D.    debug s0/0
    E.    show run
    F.    show version

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 33
    What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?

    A.    172.16.0.0
    B.    172.16.128.0
    C.    172.16.156.0
    D.    172.16.159.0
    E.    172.16.159.128
    F.    172.16.192.0

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Converting to binary format it comes to
    11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000 or
    255.255.252.0
    Starting with 172.16.0.0 and having increment of 4 we get.

    QUESTION 34
    An administrator is working with the 192.168.4.0 network, which has been subnetted with a /26 mask. Which two addresses can be assigned to hosts within the same subnet? (Choose two.)

    A.    192.168.4.61
    B.    192.168.4.63
    C.    192.168.4.67
    D.    192.168.4.125
    E.    192.168.4.128
    F.    192.168.4.132

    Answer: CD
    Explanation:
    Only the values of host with 67 and 125 fall within the range of /26 CIDR subnet mask, all others lie beyond it.

    QUESTION 35
    Refer to the exhibit. The internetwork is using subnets of the address 192.168.1.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224. The routing protocol in use is RIP version 1.
    Which address could be assigned to the FastEthernet interface on RouterA?

    351

    A.    192.168.1.31
    B.    192.168.1.64
    C.    192.168.1.127
    D.    192.168.1.190
    E.    192.168.1.192

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 36
    What is the network address for the host with IP address 192.168.23.61/28?

    A.    192.168.23.0
    B.    192.168.23.32
    C.    192.168.23.48
    D.    192.168.23.56
    E.    192.168.23.60

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    convert bit-length prefix to quad-dotted decimal representation, then from it find the number of bits used for subnetting you can find previously calculated number of subnets by separating subnets each having value of last bit used for subnet masking Find that your IP address is in which subnet, that subnet’s first address is network address and last address is broadcast address. Based on above steps the answer is option C.

    QUESTION 37
    What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

    A.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.
    B.    Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.
    C.    Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.
    D.    Assign the addresses statically on each node.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Its best to use static addressing scheme where the number of systems is manageable rather than use dynamic protocol as it is easy to operate and manage.

    QUESTION 38
    Refer to the exhibit. The enterprise has decided to use the network address 172.16.0.0. The network administrator needs to design a classful addressing scheme to accommodate the three subnets, with 30, 40, and 50 hosts, as shown.
    What subnet mask would accommodate this network?

    381

    A.    255.255.255.192
    B.    255.255.255.224
    C.    255.255.255.240
    D.    255.255.255.248
    E.    255.255.255.252

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 39
    Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

    A.    The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
    B.    The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
    C.    The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
    D.    The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
    E.    The network is not subnetted.

    Answer: BD
    Explanation:
    The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254

    QUESTION 40
    Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

    A.    1
    B.    2
    C.    4
    D.    8
    E.    252
    F.    254

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    /30 CIDR corresponds to mask 55.255.255.252 whose binary is 11111100 which means 6 subnet bits and 2 host bits which means 62 subnets and 2 hosts per subnet.

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    QUESTION 334
    You must identify and isolate traffic loss. Which option do you configure to monitor EPG-to-EPG traffic within a tenant?

    A.    SPAN
    B.    traffic map
    C.    tcpdump
    D.    atomic counters (more…)

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    QUESTION 11
    Which statement about PEST analysis is true?

    A.    Political aspects can be identified easily through surveys.
    B.    Economic and social implications are relevant only with the public sector.
    C.    A PEST analysis allows you to take an independent, outside-in view of factors that impact the customer’s situation.
    D.    A PEST analysis often can be related directly to specific findings from the operating process analysis.

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    QUESTION 11
    Which two main things must you know about stakeholders to identify where they fall in a power grid? (Choose two.)

    A.    role in company
    B.    degree of influence
    C.    size of budget
    D.    purchasing power
    E.    interest in results

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    QUESTION 11
    Which Cisco WebEx Center has program and campaign management?

    A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
    B.    Cisco WebEx Training Center
    C.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
    D.    Cisco WebEx Event Center

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 12
    When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Scripts be saved?

    A.    .js
    B.    .json
    C.    .mp4
    D.    .xml

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 13
    Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?

    A.    Global phone books
    B.    The ability to register desktop phones
    C.    The ability to register video endpoints
    D.    SRST redundancy

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 14
    In a Resilient and Scalable Cisco Meeting Servers solution where should TURN Servers be configured?

    A.    CMS Core
    B.    Telepresence Server
    C.    UCM Server
    D.    CMS Edge

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 15
    Which statement is true regarding endpoint registration authentication?

    A.    When a Subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint is required to have the correct authentications configured.
    B.    Expressways and Endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
    C.    Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
    D.    SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 16
    What protocol is used by TMS when asystem cannot be contacted usingSNMP?

    A.    TIP
    B.    HTTPS
    C.    H.245
    D.    H.239

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 17
    Which statement is true about Microsoft Skype for Business (S4B) interoperability with Cisco Meeting Server?

    A.    Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users.
    B.    Local Directories can always be used between S4B users and CMA.
    C.    Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting Server Spaces.
    D.    Calls can not be place between S4B and Cisco Meeting App (CMA) users.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 18
    What H.323 functionality exists on the CiscoMeeting Server?

    A.    H.323-to-SIP Interworking only
    B.    H.323 registration, call control and H.323-to-SIP Interworking
    C.    H.323 registration and H.323-to-SIP Interworking, but no call control
    D.    H.323 registration and call control only

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 19
    Which is used in bothCMR Premises and CMR Hybrid solutions?

    A.    Cisco CTS
    B.    Cisco Conductor
    C.    Cisco Meeting Server
    D.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/assets/global/CZ/events/2015/ciscoconnect/pdf/TECH-COLL-1_conferencing-ivsykora-jmartan.pdf

    QUESTION 20
    If a userof a SIP endpoint registered to an Expressway configured with only the video.com domain physically dials “6501”, what alias is presented in the SIP Invite message?

    A.    6501
    B.    6501@<ip address of the endpoint>
    C.    6501@<ip address of the Expressway>
    D.    6501@video.com

    Answer: C

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    QUESTION 11
    Which Cisco Secure Access solution provides centralized policy management to give administrators more granular control over access authorization?

    A.    Cisco Identity Services Engine
    B.    Cisco TrustSec
    C.    Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints
    D.    Cisco AnyConnect
    E.    Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall

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    QUESTION 51
    During runtime, when a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?

    A.    Timeout
    B.    SQL Error
    C.    Successful
    D.    No Data

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 52
    In the Expression Editor panel of Cisco Unified CCX Script Editor, what are three reasons to use the Java tab? (Choose three.)

    A.    to invoke a specified method of a custom Java class
    B.    to reference a variable of a custom Java Object
    C.    to pass variables between two different workflows
    D.    to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer
    E.    to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
    F.    to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method

    Answer: ABF

    QUESTION 53
    What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?

    A.    The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
    B.    The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
    C.    The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
    D.    The variable can be used in conditional steps.
    E.    The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 54
    Which three tasks are required to deploy a Cisco Unified CCX application? (Choose three.)

    A.    create a trigger
    B.    upload script to repository
    C.    restart the Cisco Unified CCX Engine
    D.    specify the maximum number of sessions
    E.    configure default session timeout

    Answer: ABD

    QUESTION 55
    Which option can perform Call Progress Analysis in outbound IVR?

    A.    gateway
    B.    Unified CM transcoder
    C.    Automatic Speech Recognition server
    D.    agent (voice)

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 56
    Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?

    A.    a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
    B.    a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
    C.    a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
    D.    two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 57
    Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)

    A.    Delete a resource group.
    B.    Remove a skill from a CSQ.
    C.    Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
    D.    Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
    E.    Create a resource.
    F.    Delete a skill.

    Answer: BCD

    QUESTION 58
    Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)

    A.    Phone1 is the only mandatory field.
    B.    Up to three custom fields can be added.
    C.    List filtering for “Do Not Call” is unsupported.
    D.    When records have matching phone numbers, only one record is created.
    E.    Imports can be automatically executed on a weekly basis.

    Answer: ACD

    QUESTION 59
    In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony group?

    A.    CTI Ports
    B.    CTI Route Point
    C.    Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group
    D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 60
    Select a statement about the Call Subflow step that is not true.

    A.    A subflow can access all variables in the calling script.
    B.    When the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the calling flow to the subflow.
    C.    After the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the subflow to the calling flow.
    D.    The same subflow can be invoked from different scripts.

    Answer: A

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    QUESTION 11
    While troubleshooting a failed central web authentication configuration on cisco WLC, you discover that the Cisco WLC policy manager state is showing RUN For new client and not CENTRAL_WEB_AUTH, what is most likely the issue.?

    A.    The WLAN Layer 2 security should be sent to WPA+WPA2
    B.    The WLAN NAC state should be set to RADIUS NAC
    C.    The web login page under the cisco WLC security should be set to external (redirect to external server)
    D.    The WLAN layer 3 security should be set to web page policy with condition web redirect.

    (more…)

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    QUESTION 11
    Which two flexible service mapping features that are used on the ES40 line card can classify traffic into different service instances, in order to consume fewer VLANs? (Choose two.)

    A.    CoS
    B.    DSCP
    C.    IP precedence
    D.    MPLS experimental bit
    E.    ToS
    F.    EtherType

    (more…)

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    QUESTION 11
    Which two EtherChannel modes can create an LACP EtherChannel ?

    A.    on
    B.    active
    C.    passive
    D.    auto
    E.    desirable

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    QUESTION 11
    Which two responses are examples of client error responses in SIP protocol? (Choose two.)

    A.    302 Moved Temporarily
    B.    404 Not Found
    C.    503 Service Unavailable
    D.    502 Bad Gateway
    E.    604 Does Not Exist Anywhere
    F.    408 Request Timeout

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    QUESTION 11
    You have created a network design that has two point-to-point Metro Ethernet circuits extending a single production VLAN between two data centers. Under normal circumstances, one circuit will carry traffic and spanning tree will block the other. If the company wants you to make use of both circuits to carry production traffic, which two technologies and features will you investigate to integrate into your network design? (Choose two.)

    A.    EtherChannel
    B.    MST
    C.    Multichassis EtherChannel
    D.    PVST+

    (more…)

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    QUESTION 11
    What address do PIM routers listen to in order to automatically discover the best RP for each multicast group?

    A.    224.0.0.13
    B.    224.0.1.39
    C.    224.0.0.14
    D.    224.0.1.40

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    QUESTION 11
    Which three recommendations must be taken into consideration when an engineer is installing a new Voice WLAN? (Choose three.)

    A.    Use the Cisco wireless phone site survey client utility.
    B.    Use a separate Cisco Wireless Lan Controller.
    C.    Enable load balance on voice WLANs.
    D.    Maintain -67dBM as a minimal RSSI.
    E.    Set data for 2.4 GHz and voice for 5 GHz using separate SSIDs.
    F.    Enable lower data rates for 2.4-GHz data WLAN.

    (more…)

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    QUESTION 11
    Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit?

    A.    Cisco Express Forwarding
    B.    IP SLA
    C.    passive interface
    D.    traffic shaping

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 12
    Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario?

    A.    VRRP
    B.    BGP
    C.    IPsec
    D.    SSL

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 13
    Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?

    A.    ATM
    B.    ISP MPLS VPN
    C.    VTI
    D.    VPLS

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 14
    Refer to the exhibit. Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into “legal” public addresses on a one-for-one basis?

    141

    A.    PAT
    B.    NAT
    C.    VLAN
    D.    GARP
    E.    PPP

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 15
    Which technology fulfills these requirements?

    – Utilize a connection that must support a range of traffic, voice, video, and data.
    – This traffic must also support transmission via a fixed blank 53-byte cell.

    A.    PPP
    B.    Frame Relay
    C.    ATM
    D.    MPLS
    E.    X.25

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 16
    Which option is used as a top-of-rack device that is managed by its parent device, providing ease of management?

    A.    Cisco Nexus 2000
    B.    Cisco Nexus 5000
    C.    Cisco Nexus 7000
    D.    Cisco Nexus 9000

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 17
    Which option provides software modularity in Cisco NX-OS software in the data center design?

    A.    The ip routing command enables all of the features in the Cisco NX-OS.
    B.    All of the features are enabled by default in the Cisco NX-OS.
    C.    Individual features must be manually enabled to start the process.
    D.    The Cisco NX-OS has a management VRF that is enabled by default.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 18
    What is an advantage of using the vPC feature in a data center environment?

    A.    VSS is a requirement.
    B.    Multiple instances of control plane are formed.
    C.    The control plane and management plane remain separate.
    D.    Cisco FabricPath technology does not have to be configured.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 19
    Which option is a benefit of the vPC+ feature?

    A.    Cisco FabricPath is not required in the network domain.
    B.    This feature provides fault domain separation.
    C.    Nonfabric devices, such as a server or a classic Ethernet switch, can be connected to two fabric switches that are configured with vPC.
    D.    The control plane and management plane are combined into one logical plane.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 20
    A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure. Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose?

    A.    ISSU
    B.    VSS
    C.    vPC
    D.    MEC

    Answer: C

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    QUESTION 31
    Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?

    A.    Cisco Prime LAN Management
    B.    Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
    C.    Cisco Threat Defense Solution
    D.    Syslog Server
    E.    TACACS+

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    QUESTION 11
    A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)

    A.    Client’s public IP address
    B.    Client’s operating system
    C.    Client’s default gateway IP address
    D.    Client’s username
    E.    ASA’s public IP address

    (more…)

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