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  • [April 2018] Lead2pass 840-425 Exam Questions Guarantee 840-425 Certification Exam 100% Success 191q

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    QUESTION 21
    Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

    A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
    B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
    C.    Should focus on measurable results.
    D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
    E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 22
    Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

    A.    Benefits accounting.
    B.    Benefits identification.
    C.    Benefits roles.
    D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
    E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

    Answer: BDE

    QUESTION 23
    Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

    A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
    B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
    C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
    D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 24
    How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

    A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
    B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
    C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
    D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 25
    Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

    A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
    B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
    C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
    D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
    E.    Increase revenue and margins.

    Answer: ABD

    QUESTION 26
    Which option is the best description for NPV?

    A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
    B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
    C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
    D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
    E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 27
    Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

    A.    Increased NPV.
    B.    Lower project costs.
    C.    Process efficiencies.
    D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 28
    Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

    A.    Increased NPV.
    B.    Lower project costs.
    C.    Process efficiencies.
    D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

    Answer: CD

    QUESTION 29
    Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

    A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
    B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
    C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
    D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

    Answer: AD

    QUESTION 30
    What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

    A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
    B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
    C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
    D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

    Answer: B

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    QUESTION 21
    Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

    A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
    B.    Single Split Server Deployment
    C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
    D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 22
    How is TIP defined?

    A.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non- immersive endpoints.
    B.    TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
    C.    TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
    D.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

    A.    TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
    B.    TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
    C.    TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
    D.    TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 24
    Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?

    A.    SDKs specify how software components should interact
    B.    APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
    C.    SDKs can be used without APIs.
    D.    APIs can be used without SDKs.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 25
    Which type of API is used to configure settings on Cisco Meeting Server?

    A.    REST
    B.    XML-RPC
    C.    SOAP
    D.    XMP-RPC

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 26
    Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?

    A.    802.1
    B.    SIP
    C.    Q.931
    D.    SDP

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/H-323/configuration/15-mt/voi-h323-overview.html#GUID-8130E479-580A-4450-91EA-A1CDCE96548A

    QUESTION 27
    What is a function of a call control solution?

    A.    To make, monitor and maintain calls
    B.    To provide an audio and video interface for the user
    C.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
    D.    To schedule calls

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 28
    What do Enterprise Settingson Cisco Spark determine?

    A.    Where user information comes from.
    B.    BOT integration
    C.    API integration
    D.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 29
    Which management solution works with endpointsregistered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

    A.    Prime
    B.    CMA
    C.    CMR
    D.    TMS

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 30
    Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

    A.    TelePresence Server
    B.    Spark
    C.    Cisco Meeting Server
    D.    Cisco WebEx

    Answer: B

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    QUESTION 21
    You assign security roles to an owner team and each user on the team.
    What effect does the security role that is assigned to the team have on the individual team members?

    A.    The permissions for the user are used instead of those of the team.
    B.    The user is granted the least restrictive permissions of the two roles.
    C.    The permissions for the team are used instead of those of the user.
    D.    The user is granted the most restrictive permissions of the two roles. (more…)

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    QUESTION 21
    Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

    A.    VLAN attacks
    B.    IP source routing
    C.    MAC address floods
    D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
    E.    Spanning-tree attacks

    (more…)

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    QUESTION 61
    Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

    A.    collect trace files
    B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
    C.    view syslog messages
    D.    perform backup and restore functions
    E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

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  • [April 2018] Free Download Lead2pass Cisco 400-251 VCE And PDF Dumps 359q

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    QUESTION 21
    Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two)

    211

    A.    It provides backward compability with legacy IPv6 inspection
    B.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z1 to Z2.
    C.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z2 to Z1.
    D.    It inspect TCP,UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic in both direction between z1 and z2.
    E.    It passes TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from z1 to z2.
    F.    It provide backward compatibility with legacy IPv4 inseption.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 22
    In which class of applications security threads does HTTP header manipulation reside?

    A.    Session management
    B.    Parameter manipulation
    C.    Software tampering
    D.    Exception managements

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cgisecurity.com/owasp/html/ch11s04.html
    Session management doesn’t have anything to do with HTTP header

    QUESTION 23
    What is the most commonly used technology to establish an encrypted HTTP connection?

    A.    the HTTP/1.1 Upgrade header
    B.    the HTTP/1.0 Upgrade header
    C.    Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
    D.    HTTPS

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 24
    What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?

    A.    origin authentication of DNS data
    B.    data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
    C.    access restriction of DNS zone transfers
    D.    storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 25
    What are the two mechanism that are used to authenticate OSPFv3 packets?(Choose two)

    A.    MD5
    B.    ESP
    C.    PLAIN TEXT
    D.    AH
    E.    SHA

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 26
    You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:

    (A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB
    (B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA
    (C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB
    (D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be “inside”.
    (E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.

    If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?

    A.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
    B.    context contexta
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextb
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
    C.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
    D.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2
    E.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 27
    Which statement about the cisco anyconnect web security module is true ?

    A.    It is VPN client software that works over the SSl protocol.
    B.    It is an endpoint component that is used with smart tunnel in a clientless SSL VPN.
    C.    It operates as an NAC agent when it is configured with the Anyconnect VPN client.
    D.    It is deployed on endpoints to route HTTP traffic to SCANsafe

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 28
    Which two statements about the SeND protocol are true? (Choose two)

    A.    It uses IPsec as a baseline mechanism
    B.    It supports an autoconfiguration mechanism
    C.    It must be enabled before you can configure IPv6 addresses
    D.    It supports numerous custom neighbor discovery messages
    E.    It counters neighbor discovery threats
    F.    It logs IPv6-related threats to an external log server

    Answer: BE

    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

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    QUESTION 21
    What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

    A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
    B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
    C.    Show mpls forwading-table
    D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
    E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 22
    Drag and Drop Questions

    221

    Answer:

    222

    QUESTION 23
    Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
    Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

    231

    A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
    B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
    C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
    D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

    QUESTION 24
    Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

    A.    source MAC address
    B.    source port
    C.    source IP address
    D.    destination IP address
    E.    IP protocol ID
    F.    destination MAC address

    Answer: BCD

    QUESTION 25
    An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

    A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
    B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
    C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
    D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
    E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

    Answer: AC
    Explanation:
    BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

    QUESTION 26
    A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

    A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
    B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
    C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
    D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

    QUESTION 27
    Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

    A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
    B.    section monitoring
    C.    reserved (RES)
    D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
    E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 28
    Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

    A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
    B.    normal response mode (NRM)
    C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
    D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
    E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

    Answer: ABE
    Explanation:
    Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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    QUESTION 21
    Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

    A.    Horizon
    B.    Nova
    C.    Neutron
    D.    Keystone

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 22
    Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured as the R1 neighbor in area 51, but R2 fails to receive the configured summary route.
    Which action can you take to correct the problem?

    221

    A.    Replace the summary-address command with the area-range command.
    B.    Configure a summary address under R1interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
    C.    Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0.
    D.    Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1.
    E.    Configure ip ospf network broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent?(Choose two.)

    A.    The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number.
    B.    The router must share a common process ID.
    C.    The router must be in different areas.
    D.    The routers must share a common network segment.
    E.    The routers must be configured with the neighbor command.
    F.    The routers must be in the same area.

    Answer: DF

    QUESTION 24
    Which two statements are true about control plane policing? (Choose two.)

    A.    Control plane policing will affect only traffic that is destined to the route processor.
    B.    Access lists that are used in policies for control plane policing must not use the log keyword.
    C.    Access lists that use the deny rule in control plane policing do not progress to the next class.
    D.    The log keyword can be used but the log-input keyword must not be used in policing.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 25
    Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three)

    A.    metric
    B.    authentication type
    C.    link state
    D.    IP subnet
    E.    external route tag
    F.    subnet mask

    Answer: ACF

    QUESTION 26
    Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address.
    Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?

    A.    NetFlow can export flows only to a extermal flow collector
    B.    show ip cache flow
    C.    ip accounting
    D.    ip flow-top-talkers

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 27
    Refer to the exhibit. R1, R2 and R3 are in different satelite offices of the same prganization.
    A multicast video source is located behind R1.R3 frequently receives video streams intend for R2.
    These streams saturate the available bandwidth of R3.
    Which configuration change can alleviate the congestion on R3?

    271

    A.    Configure R3 to send an immediate-leave message when necessary to stop receiving unwanted traffic.
    B.    Configure IGMP snooping on R1, R2, and R3.
    C.    Place a PIM filter on the switches and interfaces that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
    D.    Enable IGMP snooping on all switches that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
    E.    Place a PIM filter on the switch and interface that connect to R1 only.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 28
    With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?

    A.    TCP
    B.    SNMP
    C.    UDP
    D.    XMPP

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 29
    Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)

    A.    fast retransmission
    B.    fast recovery
    C.    low-latency queuing
    D.    IP service level agreements
    E.    congestion-avoidance algorithm

    Answer: CD
    Explanation:
    In the actual exam, if becomes single choice question just choose C.

    QUESTION 30
    Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)

    A.    It forwards Ethernet frames.
    B.    It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops
    C.    It supports MAC address aging.
    D.    It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
    E.    It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
    F.    It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

    Answer: ACD

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    QUESTION 21
    Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

    211

    A.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
    event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
    match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
    B.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
    event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
    Manager
    will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
    C.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
    configuration on both IP phones.
    D.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
    E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
    service configuration on both IP phones.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

    QUESTION 22
    What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

    A.    It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
    B.    It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
    C.    It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
    D.    It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
    E.    It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

    QUESTION 23
    Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

    A.    Location CAC
    B.    RSVP CAC
    C.    H.323 gatekeeper
    D.    intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
    E.    visiting cluster’s LBM hub

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

    QUESTION 24
    Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

    A.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
    B.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
    C.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
    D.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
    E.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
    F.    Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

    Answer: BD
    Explanation:
    Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

    QUESTION 25
    What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

    A.    1
    B.    up to 2
    C.    up to 3
    D.    up to 4
    E.    up to 5

    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

    QUESTION 26
    Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

    A.    null
    B.    none
    C.    directory URI
    D.    default
    E.    any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

    QUESTION 27
    Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

    A.    CCD advertising service
    B.    CCD requesting service
    C.    SAF forwarder
    D.    SAF enabled trunks
    E.    CCD registration service

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

    QUESTION 28
    Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

    A.    Low
    B.    Medium
    C.    High
    D.    Secure
    E.    Flex

    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

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    QUESTION 21
    Refer to the exhibit. All routers in this network are configured to place all interfaces in OSPF area 5. R3 is the designated router on the 10.1.5.0/24 network. If you examine the OSPF database on R4, what would the network (type 2) LSA, generated by R3, contain? (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    A security consultant decides to use multiple layers of anti-virus defense, such as end user desktop anti- virus and E-mail gateway. This approach can be used to mitigate which kind of attack?

    A.    Forensic attack
    B.    ARP spoofing attack
    C.    Social engineering attack
    D.    Scanning attack

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    QUESTION 101
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator previously configured a XenDesktop Site to use evaluation licenses. The administrator has recently installed valid Enterprise licenses on the Citrix License Server and confirmed that licenses show correctly in the licensing console. However, a user reported an issue about logging on to the published desktop. The user received an error message stating that the evaluation license is about to expire.

    What should the administrator do to fix this issue?

    A.    Restart the License service
    B.    Change the product Edition in Citrix Studio
    C.    Remove the stale registry entries from License Server
    D.    Verify the host name entry in the license file

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 102
    A Citrix Administrator wants to use NetScaler Gateway to allow external users to access internal resources securely.

    Which three functionalities will the NetScaler Gateway provide to allow access to internal resources on behalf of external users? (Choose three.)

    A.    Allow secured external connections to StoreFront (reverse Web Proxy)
    B.    Authenticate Users
    C.    Enumerate resources
    D.    Allow secured access to internal hosted applications (HDX Proxy)
    E.    Aggregate resources

    Answer: ABD

    QUESTION 103
    Which tool can be used to simulate multiple sessions of auto-creating printers using the same non-native printers?

    A.    Windows Performance Kit
    B.    Print Detective
    C.    Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification
    D.    StressPrinters

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 104
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to secure XML traffic to an existing XenDesktop environment. The Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) is NOT installed on the Delivery Controller with the IP address 10.110.4.10.

    The organization mandates that a public certificate authority (CA) server should be used for securing all communication traffic.

    After successfully testing the changes, the administrator will make the necessary changes within StoreFront.

    Which two steps should the administrator take to make the necessary changes? (Choose two.)

    A.    Run the PowerShell command: BrokerService -WiSsIPort 443
    B.    Change the registry value of XmlServicesSsIPort HKLM\SOFTWARE\Citrix\DesktopServer to 443
    C.    Create a Domain Certificate
    D.    Create a certificate Requesr
    E.    Run the command: netsh http add sslcert ipport=10.110.4.10:443

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 105
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is investigating an instability in the system that is causing the Print Spooler service to stop frequently on the XenApp server. The administrator finds printer driver conflicts in the environment.
    Which policy can the administrator use to resolve this issue and remove the unwanted printer drivers on the XenApp server?

    A.    Use only printer model specific drivers
    B.    Automatic Installation of in-box printer drivers
    C.    Auto-connect all client printers
    D.    Use universal printing only if requested driver is unavailable

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 106
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator will use PowerShell to configure a new restart schedule for the Windows 2016 Server OS group named “Win2016-ServerOS” within the company’s XenDesktop infrastructure.

    The administrator needs the machines in the Server OS group to restart at a time when NO users will be accessing them: beginning at 23:00 h (11 PM) each day, with 30-minute intervals between each machine restart.

    Which PowerShell command should the administrator use?

    A.    Set-BrokerRebootScheduleV2 ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “11:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
    B.    Set-BrokerRebootSchedule ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “23:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
    C.    New-BrokerRebootSchedule ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “11:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration
    D.    New-BrokerRebootScheduleV2 ­Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot- DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS ­Frequency Daily ­StartTime “23:00” ­Enabled $true ­RebootDuration 30

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 107
    A Citrix Administrator needs to review the Delivery Group  historical data from the last 200 days. Which tool allows the administrator to view this data?

    A.    Citrix Studio – Delivery Groups
    B.    Citrix Director – Dashboard
    C.    Citrix Studio – Applications
    D.    Citrix Director – Trends

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 108
    Which Layer contains the Citrix Director in a XenApp and XenDesktop Architecture model?

    A.    Resource
    B.    User
    C.    Control
    D.    Access

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 109
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy Receiver to a group of new users who use restricted workstations that do NOT allow applications to be installed locally on them. These users are internal to the company and connect directly to the XenDesktop environment via Storefront.

    Which deployment option is optimal for these new users?

    A.    Receiver for Web deployed from StoreFront
    B.    Native Receiver deployed through Active Directory scripting
    C.    Receiver for HTML5 deployed through client web browser
    D.    Native Receiver deployed through group policy

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 110
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has been receiving calls from users stating that they are receiving new sessions instead of reconnecting to their disconnected sessions. The administrator investigated the issue and found the sessions are in a disconnected state when the users leave work.

    What should the administrator configure inStoreFront to allow the users to reconnect to their disconnected sessions while roaming?

    A.    Session Lingering
    B.    Session Pre-Launch
    C.    Workspace Control
    D.    Session Timeout

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 111
    An organization needs fewer printers created during session startup, so that sessions start faster. Which policy allows the Citrix Administrator to achieve this goal?

    A.    Client Printer Redirection
    B.    Direct Connections to Print Servers
    C.    Printer Properties Retention
    D.    Auto-Create Client Printers

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 112
    A Citrix Administrator needs to join a XenDesktop Controller to an existing site that is configured to use a mirrored SQL server database.

    Using Citrix Studio, which two methods can the administrator choose to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

    A.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database manually”; generate scripts and run them in Administrative Power Shell Window on SQL Server
    B.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database manually”; generate scripts and run them on SQL Server Management Studio in SQLCMD mode
    C.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database automatically”; mirroring is detected without user intervention
    D.    Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database automatically”; mirroring can be configured later on

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 113
    Which two cloud providers are supported with XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15? (Choose two.)

    A.    Amazon Web Services
    B.    Google Cloud Services
    C.    Microsoft Azure
    D.    IBM Cloud

    Answer: AC

    QUESTION 114
    Which tool can a Citrix Administrator use to collect information to investigate issues with session performance?

    A.    XDPing
    B.    CDF Control
    C.    XenDesktop Site Checker
    D.    HDX Monitor

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 115
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator implemented XenApp/XenDesktop to centrally host applications for internal and external users.
    Recently, the SQL servers hosting the Site database experienced a major problem. As a result, the database is corrupted and the administrator needs to restore the Site database from backup.

    Which precautionary action must the administrator consider before restoring the Site database?

    A.    Nullify the connection strings from the registry using PowerShell so that the controllers do NOT connect to the database
    B.    Remove any hotfixes applied after the backup before performing the restore
    C.    Verify that all Delivery Controllers are shut down
    D.    Verify that the restore option in SQL Studio is set to  ITH RESTRICTED_USER?

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 116
    Which piece of License Server information does a Citrix Administrator need in order to allocate and download the XenDesktop license file from mycitrix.com?

    A.    IP Address
    B.    MAC Address
    C.    Hostname
    D.    FQDN

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 117
    Which printer tool helps enumerate all printer drivers from a specified Windows machine, including driver- specific information, and allows deletion of unwanted drivers?

    A.    Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification
    B.    Windows Performance Kit
    C.    StressPrinters
    D.    Print Detective

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 118
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to configure StoreFront to allow external users to access internal resources. The external users will authenticate on StoreFront.

    Which Storefront Authentication method will the administrator configure?

    A.    HTTP Basic
    B.    Username and password
    C.    Smart Card
    D.    Pass-through from NetScaler Gateway

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 119
    What is the order of precedence, from highest to lowest, for the different policy types that can be used to configure Citrix policies?

    A.    Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO, Local Computer
    B.    Local Computer, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Site GPO, Domain GPO, Organizational Unit GPO
    C.    Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), local Computer
    D.    Local Computer, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 120
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is working on a published application. The network connection remains for 240 seconds but is interrupted, and applications become unusable. The session then prompts for authentication. After the administrator successfully authenticates, the session is reconnected.

    Which policy makes this possible?

    A.    Load Management
    B.    Auto Client Reconnect
    C.    ICA Keep Alive
    D.    Session Reliability

    Answer: D

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    QUESTION 61
    Which of the following reports are delivered under oath to a board of directors/managers/panel of jury?

    A.    Written informal Report
    B.    Verbal Formal Report
    C.    Written Formal Report
    D.    Verbal Informal Report

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    QUESTION 21
    You have just added a new MSE to Prime Infrastructure and want to synchronize the MSE with your 5508 WLC. which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ.
    You notice that NMSP messages are failing between the two devices.
    What traffic needs to be allowed on the Firewall to ensure the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?

    A.    UDP 16113
    B.    TCP 1613
    C.    TCP 16113
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    QUESTION 86
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy 300 Virtual Windows 10 Desktops in an environment in which there is minimal interference with existing network infrastructure. There is also a need for user- installed applications and persistency.

    Which Citrix technology will the administrator use to provision the desktops?

    A.    Machine Creation Services
    B.    Provisioning Services
    C.    Manual Provisioning
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    QUESTION 21
    An engineer is assigned to provide wireless coverage in a provincial capital building. Due to the age and historic nature of the building, the ability to run new copper Ethernet cable to desired AP locations is limited. Which requirement should the engineer specify to overcome this restriction?

    A.    Deploy access points where the survey indicates and connect them via fiber optic cable, using a mediaadapter, and locally provide power.
    B.    Deploy access points to each phone location converting two spare pairs of copper from the phone line toEthernet and locally provide power.
    C.    Deploy access point devices where limited cable can be run or exists and connect high-gain antennas andincrease Tx power to increase cell size.
    D.    Deploy RAP where limited cable can be run or exists, and extend coverage using MAP.

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    QUESTION 21
    Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?

    A.    OTV
    B.    VSS
    C.    vPC
    D.    VDC

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 22
    Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?

    A.    OTV
    B.    VSS
    C.    vPC
    D.    VLAN

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?

    A.    connect to other data centers
    B.    connect to the access layer
    C.    connect to the end users
    D.    connect to mobile devices

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html
    “Edge Device
    The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
    […]
    Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. ”

    QUESTION 24
    Which QoS architecture provides scalability of implementation?

    A.    IntServ
    B.    DiffServ
    C.    LLQ
    D.    RSVP

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 25
    Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications?

    A.    IntServ
    B.    DiffServ
    C.    LLQ
    D.    ToS
    E.    DSCP

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    DiffServ is known as “Hop-by-Hop” and not “End-to-End”

    QUESTION 26
    CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

    A.    MPLS
    B.    IEEE 802.1W
    C.    IEEE 802.1Q
    D.    IEEE 802.1S

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 27
    Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?

    A.    UDP, because it is connectionless
    B.    SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
    C.    Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
    D.    MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 28
    What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?

    A.    It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
    B.    Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
    C.    There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
    D.    SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 29
    The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?

    A.    PIM
    B.    IGMP
    C.    underlying IGP
    D.    MSDP

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr.html
    “Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”

    QUESTION 30
    Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?

    A.    Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
    B.    Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
    C.    Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
    D.    Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.

    Answer: C

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