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  • [January 2018] Free Download Of Lead2pass N10-006 Real Exam Questions 1521q

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    QUESTION 1
    Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?

    A.    Enable an SNMP agent
    B.    Enable network mapping
    C.    Set monitoring SSID
    D.    Select WPA2

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Large networks with hundreds or thousands of nodes are difficult to manage without a large staff to monitor every computer. SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges, and hubs, as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

    QUESTION 2
    Which of the following commands can a network technician use to check whether the DNS server for a given domain is reachable?

    A.    nmap
    B.    nbtstat
    C.    dig
    D.    arp

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    The commanddigis a tool for querying DNS nameservers for information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. This tool can be used from any Linux (Unix) or Macintosh OS X operating system. The most typical use of dig is to simply query a single host.

    QUESTION 3
    Which of the following standards can operate at either 20MHz or 40MHz channel spacing?

    A.    802.11a
    B.    802.11b
    C.    802.11g
    D.    802.11n

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The 2.4 GHz ISM band is fairly congested. With 802.11n, there is the option to double the bandwidth per channel to 40 MHz which results in slightly more than double the data rate. However, when in 2.4 GHz, enabling this option takes up to 82%[10] of the unlicensed band, which in many areas may prove to be infeasible.
    The specification calls for requiring one primary 20 MHz channel as well as a secondary adjacent channel spaced ?0 MHz away. The primary channel is used for communications with clients incapable of 40 MHz mode. When in 40 MHz mode, the center frequency is actually the mean of the primary and secondary channels.

    QUESTION 4
    A client’s computer is unable to access any network resources. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to determine the IP address of the client’s machine?

    A.    ipconfig
    B.    nslookup
    C.    dig
    D.    tracert

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    ipconfigis a commmand line utility available on all versions of Microsoft Windows starting with Windows NT. ipconfig is designed to be run from the Windows command prompt. This utility allows you to get the IP address information of a Windows computer. It also allows some control over active TCP/IP connections. ipconfig is an alternative to the older ‘winipcfg’ utility.

    QUESTION 5
    A user’s computer is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to determine if DNS is working?

    A.    nbstat
    B.    arp
    C.    nslookup
    D.    ipconfig

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    nslookupis a network utility program used to obtain information about Internet servers. As its name suggests, the utility finds name server information for domains by querying DNS.

    QUESTION 6
    Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable?

    A.    Cable has been looped too many times.
    B.    Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector.
    C.    Cable is too warm.
    D.    Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.

    Answer: D
    Explanation: Cat 5is a twisted pair cablefor carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

    QUESTION 7
    Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?

    A.    250
    B.    254
    C.    255
    D.    256

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    TheSubnet Maskhowever, determines the “class” of a Network. 255.255.255.0 is a “Class C” network.A class c network can host up to 254 pc’s

    QUESTION 8
    On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?

    A.    Network
    B.    Data Link
    C.    Transport
    D.    Physical

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The ITU-TG.hnstandard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of aselective repeatSliding Window Protocol.

    QUESTION 9
    Joe, a network technician, is troubleshooting in a wiring closet in 2011. The cabling to all the equipment does not match the documentation from 2007. Which of the following configuration management methods has been overlooked?

    A.    Change management
    B.    System logs
    C.    Asset management
    D.    Baselining

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Change management is the request for to change any configuration which is documented.

    QUESTION 10
    Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?

    A.    Transport
    B.    Internet
    C.    Application
    D.    Network Interface

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    TheApplication layerprovides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed.

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    QUESTION 1
    You are creating a budget register entry.
    You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.
    What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?

    A.    enter recurrence
    B.    transfer balances
    C.    allocate across periods
    D.    allocate across dimensions

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    QUESTION 1
    You are creating new sales agreements for a new customer.
    The commitment type is configured to be product quantity commitment.
    Which two settings are available for this type of agreement and unavailable for other types of agreements? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

    A.    Amount
    B.    Unit
    C.    Discount
    D.    Quantity

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    QUESTION 1
    Which two series aggregate functions are only available on numeric field data types? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Count: Non-empty
    B.    Count: All
    C.    Avg
    D.    Max

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    QUESTION 21
    You are asked to merge a RIP network with your OSPF network. As a first step, you establish connectivity between the RIP network and the OSPF network. The RIP network connects to an NSSA area. Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

    A.    To share RIP routes with the OSPF network, an export policy will be required on the ABR.
    B.    To share RIP routes with the OSPF network, an export policy will be required on the ASBR.
    C.    By default, external OSPF routes have a higher route preference than RIP routes.
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    QUESTION 244
    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

    A company has custom ASP.net and Java applications that run on old versions of Windows and Linux. The company plans to place applications in containers.

    You need to design a solution that includes networking, service discovery, and load balancing for the applications. The solution must support storage orchestration.

    Solution: You create an Azure virtual network, a public IP address, and load balancer. Then add virtual machines (VMs) to the solution and deploy individual containers on them.

    Does the solution meet the goal?

    A.    Yes
    B.    No (more…)

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    QUESTION 1
    The type of discretionary access control (DAC) that is based on an individual’s identity is also called:

    A.    Identity-based Access control
    B.    Rule-based Access control
    C.    Non-Discretionary Access Control
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    QUESTION 1
    A telecommunication company has recently upgraded their teleconference systems to multicast. Additionally, the security team has instituted a new policy which requires VPN to access the company’s video conference.
    All parties must be issued a VPN account and must connect to the company’s VPN concentrator to participate in the remote meetings.
    Which of the following settings will increase bandwidth utilization on the VPN concentrator during the remote meetings?

    A.    IPSec transport mode is enabled
    B.    ICMP is disabled
    C.    Split tunneling is disabled
    D.    NAT-traversal is enabled

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    QUESTION 1
    DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP?
    Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    A.    Validation
    B.    Re-Accreditation
    C.    Verification
    D.    System Definition
    E.    Identification
    F.    Accreditation (more…)

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    QUESTION 41
    In an Aruba controller based system, the L3 mobility tunnel exists between the home agent and which other element?

    A.    the default gateway
    B.    the remote AP
    C.    the foreign agent
    D.    the mobile node
    E.    the foreign switch

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 42
    Which match condition can be used by a server derivation rule?(Choose two)

    A.    greater than
    B.    less than
    C.    inverse of
    D.    contains
    E.    equals

    Answer: DE

    QUESTION 43
    The Master fails with Central Licensing enabled. What happens to the local Controllers?

    A.    Locals continue to operate for 1 day
    B.    Locals operate for 30 days and accept new APs
    C.    Locals continue to operate for 90 days and accepts new APs
    D.    Locals can only use their originally installed Licenses
    E.    Locals will operate with active APs but not will accept any other APs

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 44
    A network needs to implement L3 roaming. On the Master Controller, the administrator, enabled IP mobility, created a Domain and created the HAT table with all the IP addresses of the local controllers. He then enabled Mobility on the VAPs. The configuration was then saved. L3 Mobility is still not working, what could be the cause? (Choose two)

    A.    IP Mobility must be enabled on all controllers.
    B.    IP-IP tunnels must be configured between controllers.
    C.    The Domain must activated on each controller.
    D.    The HAT table must be configured on each controller.
    E.    The HAT table must be configured with each controllers supported subnets.

    Answer: AC

    QUESTION 45
    In a campus environment, where are encryption keys sent or stored when users roam between tunneled mode APs on the same controller using 802.1X?

    A.    sent to the new AP via GRE
    B.    sent to the new AP via IPSec
    C.    stored on the controller
    D.    stored on the RADIUS server
    E.    original AP sends keys to new AP

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 46
    With CPSec enabled, which tunnel protocol is used between APs and Controllers in an Aruba environment?

    A.    EAP
    B.    SSH
    C.    IPinIP
    D.    Mobile IP
    E.    IPSec

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 47
    In the diagram provided for this question, the wireless user’s laptop is associated with an Aruba AP in tunnel forwarding mode. The AP terminates on the local controller.

    471

    When the client transmits, where will the 802.11 headers be removed?

    A.    AP
    B.    L2 Switch
    C.    Router
    D.    Local Controller
    E.    Internet

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 48
    A user connected to a Captive Portal VAP successfully. When the user opens their browser and tries to access their homepage, they get redirected as expected to another URL on the Aruba Controller. However, they see an error message that web authentication has been disabled. What might be a cause of this?

    A.    Captive Portal has not been assigned in the SSID profile.
    B.    The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the AAA profile.
    C.    A server group has not been assigned to the captive portal profile.
    D.    An initial role has not been assigned to the AAA profile.
    E.    The Captive portal profile has not been assigned to the initial role.

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 49
    By default, which CLI based remote access method is enabled on Aruba controllers?

    A.    RSH
    B.    Telnet
    C.    SSH
    D.    Telnet and SSH
    E.    Telnet, SSH and RSH

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 50
    A customer forgot all passwords for a controller. What method could you use to reset the passwords?

    A.    Telnet to the controller and login to the password recovery account
    B.    SSH to the controller and login to the password recovery account
    C.    Connect directly to the serial console and login to the password recovery account
    D.    Interrupt the boot process at CP-boot and select password recovery
    E.    Open the controller and press the reset switch

    Answer: C

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    QUESTION 1
    Which option is a key concept of the unique Cisco sales approach?

    A.    Add as many new Cisco technologies to the solution that meet customer needs.
    B.    Start driving outcomes for customers, and go beyond selling and implementing technology solutions.
    C.    Put together the most logical set of services for the customer.
    D.    Engage in dialog about customer needs and new technologies.

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    QUESTION 1
    Cisco Secure Access Solutions delivers a secure connection to a continually growing number of endpoints. This statement is an example of which Cisco value?

    A.    time-to-value
    B.    protection
    C.    control
    D.    scalability
    E.    flexibility
    F.    agility

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    QUESTION 1
    According to OWASP guidelines, what is the recommended method to prevent cross-site request forgery?

    A.    Allow only POST requests.
    B.    Mark all cookies as HTTP only.
    C.    Use per-session challenge tokens in links within your web application.
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    QUESTION 1
    Which two SCCP call signaling messages are sent by an IP phone to Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)

    A.    SoftKeyEvent
    B.    OpenReceiveChannelAck
    C.    StartMediaTransmission
    D.    SelectSoftKeys
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    QUESTION 1
    A company plans to include Nonstop Forwarding and Bidirectional Forwarding Detection as a part of their network redundancy plan. In which two ways do NSF and BFD work together when different hardware platforms are compared? (Choose two.)

    A.    During supervisor engine or routing engine failover, the NSF feature will always ensure that the BFD
    at the peer router will not trigger a link down independent of the used hardware platform.
    B.    At some hardware platforms, BFD and NSF are not supported together. During supervisor engine or
    routing engine failover, the BFD at the peer router will trigger a link down.
    C.    To ensure that BFD at the peer router will not trigger a link down during NSF, the BFD packets must
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    BFD independent from the supervisor engine or routing engine.
    D.    Because BFD is always processed at the line cards (not at the supervisor engine or routing engine),
    a supervisor engine or routing engine failover will not affect the BFD peer router.
    E.    Because BFD is always processed at the supervisor engine or routing engine, a supervisor engine or
    routing engine failover will always trigger a link down at the peer router.

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 2
    Refer to the exhibit. A service provider would like to use Ethernet OAM to detect end-to-end connectivity failures between SP-SW1 and SP-SW2. In which two of these ways can you design this solution? (Choose two.)

    21

    A.    Enable Y.1731 Connectivity Fault Management on the SP switches.
    B.    E-LMI PDUs must be forwarded over VPLS.
    C.    Cisco Discovery Protocol PDUs must be forwarded over the VPLS.
    D.    Use upward maintenance endpoints on the SP switches.
    E.    Enable IEEE 802.1ag Connectivity Fault Management on the SP switches.

    Answer: DE

    QUESTION 3
    A network design shows two routers directly connected to an Ethernet switch using optical connections. There is an OSPF adjacency between the routers. In this design, which solution will ensure that interface down detection is reported as quickly as possible to the IGP?

    A.    optimized OSPF SPF timers
    B.    Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
    C.    automatic protection switching
    D.    optimized OSPF LSA timers
    E.    Ethernet OAM CFM monitoring

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 4
    A network designer is working with a company to improve convergence at the Layer 2 control plane and decides to use LACP. Which of these components does LACP use to create the system ID?

    A.    LACP system priority and switch MAC address
    B.    LACP port priority and switch MAC address
    C.    LACP port priority and port number
    D.    LACP system priority and port number

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 5
    How are community formats sent in SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c?

    A.    In both protocols they are encrypted.
    B.    In both protocols they are sent as clear text.
    C.    In SNMPv1 they are sent as clear text and in SNMPv2c they are encrypted.
    D.    In SNMPv1 they are sent as clear text and in SNMPv2c they are sent as part of an encrypted session.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 6
    You are deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites do not need to be able to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern).
    How should you configure OSPF for this topology to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?

    A.    Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
    B.    Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
    C.    Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
    D.    Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 7
    Which two practices should you implement to increase SNMPv1 security? (Choose two.)

    A.    Restrict access to the specific SNMP engine IDs in use.
    B.    Use ACLs to allow only specific IP addresses to poll SNMP.
    C.    Use a combination of alphanumeric characters for the community strings.
    D.    Use SNMP encryption for transport confidentiality.

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 8
    Refer to the exhibits. You have been asked to review a proposal for adding redundancy to the non-redundant network in Exhibit 1. Exhibit 2 shows the proposed redundant network. Which technology would provide faster convergence over the newly introduced layer 2 domains?

    81

    A.    Bi-directional Forwarding Detection
    B.    Rapid Spanning Tree
    C.    Unidirectional Link Detection
    D.    Hot Standby Router Protocol

    Answer: A

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    QUESTION 1
    You have successfully comprised a server having an IP address of 10.10.0.5.
    You would like to enumerate all machines in the same network quickly.
    What is the best nmap command you will use?

    A.    nmap -T4 -F 10.10.0.0/24
    B.    nmap -T4 -r 10.10.1.0/24
    C.    nmap -T4 -O 10.10.0.0/24
    D.    nmap -T4 -q 10.10.0.0/24

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    QUESTION 41
    Shortcuts are the files with the extension .Ink that are created and are accessed by the users. These files provide you with information about:

    A.    Files or network shares
    B.    Running application
    C.    Application logs
    D.    System logs

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 42
    A computer forensic report is a report which provides detailed information on the complete forensics investigation process.

    A.    True
    B.    False

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 43
    Which one of the following statements is not correct while preparing for testimony?

    A.    Go through the documentation thoroughly
    B.    Do not determine the basic facts of the case before beginning and examining the evidence
    C.    Establish early communication with the attorney
    D.    Substantiate the findings with documentation and by collaborating with other computer forensics professionals

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 44
    Computer security logs contain information about the events occurring within an organization’s systems and networks. Application and Web server log files are useful in detecting web attacks. The source, nature, and time of the attack can be determined by _________of the compromised system.

    A.    Analyzing log files
    B.    Analyzing SAM file
    C.    Analyzing rainbow tables
    D.    Analyzing hard disk boot records

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 45
    An intrusion detection system (IDS) gathers and analyzes information from within a computer or a network to identify any possible violations of security policy, including unauthorized access, as well as misuse.
    Which of the following intrusion detection systems audit events that occur on a specific host?

    A.    Network-based intrusion detection
    B.    Host-based intrusion detection
    C.    Log file monitoring
    D.    File integrity checking

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 46
    What is a first sector (“sector zero”) of a hard disk?

    A.    Master boot record
    B.    System boot record
    C.    Secondary boot record
    D.    Hard disk boot record

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 47
    Ever-changing advancement or mobile devices increases the complexity of mobile device examinations. Which or the following is an appropriate action for the mobile forensic investigation?

    A.    To avoid unwanted interaction with devices found on the scene, turn on any wireless interfaces such as Bluetooth and Wi-Fi radios
    B.    Do not wear gloves while handling cell phone evidence to maintain integrity of physical evidence
    C.    If the device’s display is ON. the screen’s contents should be photographed and, if necessary, recorded manually, capturing the time, service status, battery level, and other displayed icons
    D.    If the phone is in a cradle or connected to a PC with a cable, then unplug the device from the computer

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 48
    Which of the following is the certifying body of forensics labs that investigate criminal cases by analyzing evidence?

    A.    The American Society of Crime Laboratory Directors (ASCLD)
    B.    International Society of Forensics Laboratory (ISFL)
    C.    The American Forensics Laboratory Society (AFLS)
    D.    The American Forensics Laboratory for Computer Forensics (AFLCF)

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 49
    When a system is compromised, attackers often try to disable auditing, in Windows 7; modifications to the audit policy are recorded as entries of Event ID____________.

    A.    4902
    B.    3902
    C.    4904
    D.    3904

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 50
    MAC filtering is a security access control methodology, where a ___________ is assigned to each network card to determine access to the network

    A.    16-bit address
    B.    24-bit address
    C.    32-bit address
    D.    48-bit address

    Answer: D

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  • [January 2018] 2018 Latest Updated 300-365 Dumps Free Download In Lead2pass 71q

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    https://www.lead2pass.com/300-365.html

    QUESTION 1
    What devices can be tracked with the Cisco Context Aware Services?

    A.    Only wired devices.
    B.    Both wired and wireless devices.
    C.    Only Cisco certified wireless devices.
    D.    Only wireless devices.

    (more…)

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