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    QUESTION 21
    You are a developer for an Independent Software Vendor (ISV).

    You need to create new extended data types in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.

    What are two best practices for extending a series of data types?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

    A.    An EDT should be created for each atomic entity being utilized.
    B.    Subtypes are not required for EDTs that do not contain any property changes.
    C.    You cannot extend the recID or tableID system data types.
    D.    You cannot use EDTs if one of them is a member of the parent extended data.

    Answer: AB
    Explanation:
    Whenever possible, you will want to use EDTs and EDTs should be created for each atomic entity in thesituation that your application is modeling.You should only create subtypes when they are needed. In other words, when you are creating an EDTthat extends another EDT, but you aren’t changing any of its properties, you probably do not need tocreate a new subtype.

    QUESTION 22
    You are installing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail at a store location.

    You want to share a drawer between point-of-sale (POS) clients.

    To achieve this goal, which component should you install on the computer connected to the cash drawer?

    A.    Hardware Station
    B.    Cloud POS
    C.    Commerce Runtime (CRT)
    D.    Retail Server

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Retail hardware station provides services that enable retail POS clients and peripherals such as printers, cash drawers, and payment devices to communicate with retail server.

    QUESTION 23
    You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail environment.

    You are preparing to deploy packages.
    Which two types of items can you deploy as a package? Each correct answer presents a completesolution.

    A.    a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtime components
    B.    an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package
    C.    a Microsoft Dynamics 365 Language Pack
    D.    a Retail Software Development Kit (SDK)

    Answer: AB
    Explanation:
    A deployable package is a unit of deployment that can be applied in any Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retailenvironment. A deployable package can be a binary hotfix to the Application Object Server (AOS) runtimecomponents, an updated Dynamics 365 for Retail customization package, or a new Microsoft Dynamics365 for Retail customization/application module package.

    QUESTION 24
    You are adding a relationship to a table.

    Which two best practices should you follow? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Define a navigational relationship; the validate property on the relation should be set to “Yes” for easier navigation.
    B.    Set the validate property to No when you are using navigational relationships so that the application is easy to navigate.
    C.    Name the relationship with an “_rel” suffix in order to differentiate it from the index that is appended with”_idx”.
    D.    Define the relationship to a foreign key on the child table by setting the validate property on the relation to Yes.

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 25
    What are two benefits of applying a form pattern to a form? Each correct answer presents part of thesolution.

    A.    ensures data consistency by enforcing common relationship patterns between datasources
    B.    provides default values for many properties on controls
    C.    enforces a consistent style so that the forms a user encounters are immediately recognizable
    D.    allows a developer to create many delivered forms from a base form

    Answer: BC
    Explanation:
    Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Enterprise Edition, makes development easier byproviding a guided experience for applying patterns to forms to ensure they are correct and consistent.
    They help validate forms and control structures and the use of controls incertain places. Using patternsalso ensures that each new form encountered by a user is immediatelyrecognizable in appearance andfunction. Form patterns can provide many default control properties, which leads to a more guideddevelopment experience.

    QUESTION 26
    You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer and are reviewinganother developer’s changesto a project.

    You run the Best Practices Fixer on the project. The following error message appears in the error list in Visual Studio for the display menu item XYZ:

    BP Rule: [BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege]:Path: [dynamics://MenuItemDisplay/
    XYZ]:BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: ‘AxMenuItemDisplay’ ‘XYZ’ is not covered by privilege: XYZ
    (USR) [YourModule]

    Based on this error message, which recommendation should you make to the developer?

    A.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of a new or existing Security Privilege in the Your Module model.
    B.    Set the Create Permissions and Delete Permissions properties on the XYZ display menu item.
    C.    Add the XYZ display menu item to the Entry Points of an extension of an existing Security Privilege in the Application Suite model.
    D.    Set the Linked Permission Type property to Form, and the Linked Permission Object property to thename of the form on the XYZ display menu item.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    BPErrorMenuItemNotCoveredByPrivilege: Only the system administrator role can access this form

    QUESTION 27
    You are working in a Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations environment that has an existingform named ModifyData and a display menu item named ModifyData1, which opens ModifyData. Youcreate a second menu item named ModifyData2 that also opens ModifyData.

    Aprivilegenamed ModifyData1View has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point with Read access.

    There is also a privilege named ModifyData1Maintain that has the ModifyData1 menu item as an entry point, with the Access Level property set to Delete. You create a new privilege named ModifyData2View and add the ModifyData2 menu item as an entry point. You set the Access Level property to Read on the ModifyData2 entry point.

    You need to create a new duty named DataManager so that a role with this duty can delete data from ModifyData when accessed through ModifyData1 and read data on the ModifyData form when accessedthrough ModifyData2.

    What should you do to achieve this goal?

    A.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
    B.    Grant the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.
    C.    Grant the ModifyData1Maintain privilege to the DataManager duty.
    D.    Grant the ModifyData1View privilege and the ModifyData2View privilege to the DataManager duty.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 28
    Which of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations application stack provides financial and human resources management functionality?

    A.    Application Suite
    B.    Application Object
    C.    Application Foundation
    D.    Application Platform

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Most of the functionality we associate with Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations is added in the Application Suite. Specific examples include the financial management, inventory or warehouse management, human resources management or the fleet management scenario.

    QUESTION 29
    You are creating a custom lookup form to look up records in a table.

    You want to provide multiple views of the table on the form.

    Which form pattern should you apply?

    A.    Details Master with Standard Tabs
    B.    Simple List
    C.    Lookup with Tabs
    D.    Dialog – Advanced Selection

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Lookup basic?This is the basic Lookup pattern that has just one list or tree, and also optional customfilters and actions.
    Lookup w/tabs?This Lookup pattern is used when more than oneview of the lookup can be madeavailable to the user. Tab captions aren’t shown. Instead, the tab is selected through a combo box.
    Lookup w/preview?This more advanced Lookup pattern enables a preview of the current record in thelookup grid.

    QUESTION 30
    You are writing a method to update the Customer reference field on a Sales order table record. You begin by writing the following code:

    class ExampleClass
    {
    /// <summary>
    /// Update the Customer reference field on the Sales orders table.
    /// </summary>
    /// <param name = “_salesId”>
    /// Sales order to update
    /// </param>
    /// <param name = “_customerRef”>
    /// Updated Customer reference value
    /// </param>
    public static void updateSalesTableCustomerReference(SalesId _salesId,
    CustRef _customerRef)
    {
    SalesTable salesTable;
    }
    }

    Which statement will complete the method?

    A.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId);
    salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
    salesTable.update();
    B.    update_recordset salesTable
    setting CustomerRef=_customerRef
    where salesTable.salesid==_salesId;
    C.    salesTable = SalesTable::find(_salesId, true); salesTable.CustomerRef = _customerRef;
    salesTable.update();
    D.    update_recordset salesTable
    setting SalesId = _salesId
    where salesTable.CustomerRef == _customerRef;

    Answer: C

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    QUESTION 21
    You are processing a customer payment and want to generate a payment line based on due date so that you can search the invoice lines that meet selected search criteria.
    What should you do?

    A.    Use Settlement
    B.    Use payment transfer.
    C.    Use Manual Payment Journal
    D.    Use Payment proposal (more…)

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    QUESTION 21
    You are an accounts receivable manager.
    You company wants its top 10customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduce price.
    You need to establish a price.
    Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
    B.    Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
    C.    Set up a price/discount journal.
    D.    Set up a Price/Discount group for the 10 customers. (more…)

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    QUESTION 41
    Which policy statement will be applied to neighbor 172.16.4.2?

    A.    policy-statement all and policy -statement agg
    B.    policy-statement agg
    C.    policy-statement all and policy -statement atat
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    QUESTION 21
    What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

    A.    False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
    B.    False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
    C.    Crossover Error Rate (CER)
    D.    True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

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    QUESTION 21
    A company is developing a new web application for its Internet users and is following a secure coding methodology.
    Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

    A.    Conduct web server load tests.
    B.    Conduct static code analysis.
    C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
    D.    Conduct SQL injection and XSS attacks.

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    QUESTION 21
    Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?

    A.    Access control entry (ACE)
    B.    Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
    C.    Access control list (ACL)
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    QUESTION 21
    Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

    A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
    B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
    C.    Should focus on measurable results.
    D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
    E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 22
    Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

    A.    Benefits accounting.
    B.    Benefits identification.
    C.    Benefits roles.
    D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
    E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

    Answer: BDE

    QUESTION 23
    Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

    A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
    B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
    C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
    D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 24
    How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

    A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
    B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
    C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
    D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 25
    Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

    A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
    B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
    C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
    D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
    E.    Increase revenue and margins.

    Answer: ABD

    QUESTION 26
    Which option is the best description for NPV?

    A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
    B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
    C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
    D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
    E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 27
    Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

    A.    Increased NPV.
    B.    Lower project costs.
    C.    Process efficiencies.
    D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 28
    Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

    A.    Increased NPV.
    B.    Lower project costs.
    C.    Process efficiencies.
    D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

    Answer: CD

    QUESTION 29
    Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

    A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
    B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
    C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
    D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

    Answer: AD

    QUESTION 30
    What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

    A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
    B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
    C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
    D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

    Answer: B

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    QUESTION 21
    Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

    A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
    B.    Single Split Server Deployment
    C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
    D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 22
    How is TIP defined?

    A.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in calls between any H.323 and SIP endpoint. Whether they are immersive endpoints or non- immersive endpoints.
    B.    TIP allows communication between any immersive and non-immersive endpoint.
    C.    TIP allows communication between any endpoint, regardless of what protocol is used
    D.    TIP multiplexes RTP ports to reduce the number of video streams required in cars between immersive endpoints.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    Which statement is true regarding TMS permissions?

    A.    TMS Permissions are assigned to groups, and users are added to the groups.
    B.    TMS Permissions are directly assigned to individual users.
    C.    TMS Permissions are configured in Active Directory, which is then synched to TMS.
    D.    TMS Permissions can be imported from the Expressway or CUCM.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 24
    Which statement is true about APIs and SDKs?

    A.    SDKs specify how software components should interact
    B.    APIs consist of a set of SDKs, sample code, technical notes, and debugging facilities.
    C.    SDKs can be used without APIs.
    D.    APIs can be used without SDKs.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 25
    Which type of API is used to configure settings on Cisco Meeting Server?

    A.    REST
    B.    XML-RPC
    C.    SOAP
    D.    XMP-RPC

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 26
    Which is a protocol used in the H.323 standard?

    A.    802.1
    B.    SIP
    C.    Q.931
    D.    SDP

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/H-323/configuration/15-mt/voi-h323-overview.html#GUID-8130E479-580A-4450-91EA-A1CDCE96548A

    QUESTION 27
    What is a function of a call control solution?

    A.    To make, monitor and maintain calls
    B.    To provide an audio and video interface for the user
    C.    To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
    D.    To schedule calls

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 28
    What do Enterprise Settingson Cisco Spark determine?

    A.    Where user information comes from.
    B.    BOT integration
    C.    API integration
    D.    How Connectors are integrated in a hybrid deployment.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 29
    Which management solution works with endpointsregistered to UCM, VCS and Expressway?

    A.    Prime
    B.    CMA
    C.    CMR
    D.    TMS

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 30
    Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?

    A.    TelePresence Server
    B.    Spark
    C.    Cisco Meeting Server
    D.    Cisco WebEx

    Answer: B

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    QUESTION 21
    You assign security roles to an owner team and each user on the team.
    What effect does the security role that is assigned to the team have on the individual team members?

    A.    The permissions for the user are used instead of those of the team.
    B.    The user is granted the least restrictive permissions of the two roles.
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    QUESTION 21
    Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

    A.    VLAN attacks
    B.    IP source routing
    C.    MAC address floods
    D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
    E.    Spanning-tree attacks

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    QUESTION 61
    Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

    A.    collect trace files
    B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
    C.    view syslog messages
    D.    perform backup and restore functions
    E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

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    QUESTION 21
    Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two)

    211

    A.    It provides backward compability with legacy IPv6 inspection
    B.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z1 to Z2.
    C.    It inspect TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from Z2 to Z1.
    D.    It inspect TCP,UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic in both direction between z1 and z2.
    E.    It passes TCP, UDP,ICMP and FTP traffic from z1 to z2.
    F.    It provide backward compatibility with legacy IPv4 inseption.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 22
    In which class of applications security threads does HTTP header manipulation reside?

    A.    Session management
    B.    Parameter manipulation
    C.    Software tampering
    D.    Exception managements

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cgisecurity.com/owasp/html/ch11s04.html
    Session management doesn’t have anything to do with HTTP header

    QUESTION 23
    What is the most commonly used technology to establish an encrypted HTTP connection?

    A.    the HTTP/1.1 Upgrade header
    B.    the HTTP/1.0 Upgrade header
    C.    Secure Hypertext Transfer Protocol
    D.    HTTPS

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 24
    What functionality is provided by DNSSEC?

    A.    origin authentication of DNS data
    B.    data confidentiality of DNS queries and answers
    C.    access restriction of DNS zone transfers
    D.    storage of the certificate records in a DNS zone file

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 25
    What are the two mechanism that are used to authenticate OSPFv3 packets?(Choose two)

    A.    MD5
    B.    ESP
    C.    PLAIN TEXT
    D.    AH
    E.    SHA

    Answer: BD

    QUESTION 26
    You have been asked to configure a Cisco ASA appliance in multiple mode with these settings:

    (A) You need two customer contexts, named contextA and contextB
    (B) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/1 to contextA
    (C) Allocate interfaces G0/0 and G0/2 to contextB
    (D) The physical interface name for G0/1 within contextA should be “inside”.
    (E) All other context interfaces must be viewable via their physical interface names.

    If the admin context is already defined and all interfaces are enabled, which command set will complete this configuration?

    A.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
    B.    context contexta
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextb
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible
    C.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 invisible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 invisible
    D.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2
    E.    context contextA
    config-url disk0:/contextA.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/0 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 inside
    context contextB
    config-url disk0:/contextB.cfg
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/1 visible
    allocate-interface GigabitEthernet0/2 visible

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 27
    Which statement about the cisco anyconnect web security module is true ?

    A.    It is VPN client software that works over the SSl protocol.
    B.    It is an endpoint component that is used with smart tunnel in a clientless SSL VPN.
    C.    It operates as an NAC agent when it is configured with the Anyconnect VPN client.
    D.    It is deployed on endpoints to route HTTP traffic to SCANsafe

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 28
    Which two statements about the SeND protocol are true? (Choose two)

    A.    It uses IPsec as a baseline mechanism
    B.    It supports an autoconfiguration mechanism
    C.    It must be enabled before you can configure IPv6 addresses
    D.    It supports numerous custom neighbor discovery messages
    E.    It counters neighbor discovery threats
    F.    It logs IPv6-related threats to an external log server

    Answer: BE

    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

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    QUESTION 21
    What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

    A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
    B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
    C.    Show mpls forwading-table
    D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
    E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 22
    Drag and Drop Questions

    221

    Answer:

    222

    QUESTION 23
    Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
    Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

    231

    A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
    B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
    C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
    D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

    QUESTION 24
    Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

    A.    source MAC address
    B.    source port
    C.    source IP address
    D.    destination IP address
    E.    IP protocol ID
    F.    destination MAC address

    Answer: BCD

    QUESTION 25
    An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

    A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
    B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
    C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
    D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
    E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

    Answer: AC
    Explanation:
    BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

    QUESTION 26
    A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

    A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
    B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
    C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
    D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

    QUESTION 27
    Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

    A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
    B.    section monitoring
    C.    reserved (RES)
    D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
    E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 28
    Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

    A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
    B.    normal response mode (NRM)
    C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
    D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
    E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

    Answer: ABE
    Explanation:
    Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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    QUESTION 21
    Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

    A.    Horizon
    B.    Nova
    C.    Neutron
    D.    Keystone

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 22
    Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured as the R1 neighbor in area 51, but R2 fails to receive the configured summary route.
    Which action can you take to correct the problem?

    221

    A.    Replace the summary-address command with the area-range command.
    B.    Configure a summary address under R1interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
    C.    Configure a summary address under R1 interface GigabitEthernet1/0.
    D.    Configure the no discard-route command in the OSPF process of R1.
    E.    Configure ip ospf network broadcast under the Loopback0 interface of R1.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    Which two conditions must be met before IS-IS Level 1 routers will become adjacent?(Choose two.)

    A.    The routers must share a common Autonomous System Number.
    B.    The router must share a common process ID.
    C.    The router must be in different areas.
    D.    The routers must share a common network segment.
    E.    The routers must be configured with the neighbor command.
    F.    The routers must be in the same area.

    Answer: DF

    QUESTION 24
    Which two statements are true about control plane policing? (Choose two.)

    A.    Control plane policing will affect only traffic that is destined to the route processor.
    B.    Access lists that are used in policies for control plane policing must not use the log keyword.
    C.    Access lists that use the deny rule in control plane policing do not progress to the next class.
    D.    The log keyword can be used but the log-input keyword must not be used in policing.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 25
    Which three pieces of information are carried on OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose three)

    A.    metric
    B.    authentication type
    C.    link state
    D.    IP subnet
    E.    external route tag
    F.    subnet mask

    Answer: ACF

    QUESTION 26
    Your NetFlow collector is not working due to a large amount of traffic entering your network which is destined to a single IP address.
    Which NetFlow feature allows you to collect the top source hosts for this traffic on the local router?

    A.    NetFlow can export flows only to a extermal flow collector
    B.    show ip cache flow
    C.    ip accounting
    D.    ip flow-top-talkers

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 27
    Refer to the exhibit. R1, R2 and R3 are in different satelite offices of the same prganization.
    A multicast video source is located behind R1.R3 frequently receives video streams intend for R2.
    These streams saturate the available bandwidth of R3.
    Which configuration change can alleviate the congestion on R3?

    271

    A.    Configure R3 to send an immediate-leave message when necessary to stop receiving unwanted traffic.
    B.    Configure IGMP snooping on R1, R2, and R3.
    C.    Place a PIM filter on the switches and interfaces that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
    D.    Enable IGMP snooping on all switches that connect to R1, R2, and R3.
    E.    Place a PIM filter on the switch and interface that connect to R1 only.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 28
    With which protocol is CoAP designed to be used?

    A.    TCP
    B.    SNMP
    C.    UDP
    D.    XMPP

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 29
    Which two solutions can reduce UDP latency? (Choose two.)

    A.    fast retransmission
    B.    fast recovery
    C.    low-latency queuing
    D.    IP service level agreements
    E.    congestion-avoidance algorithm

    Answer: CD
    Explanation:
    In the actual exam, if becomes single choice question just choose C.

    QUESTION 30
    Which three statements describe the characteristics of a VPLS architecture? (Choose three.)

    A.    It forwards Ethernet frames.
    B.    It maps MAC address destinations to IP next hops
    C.    It supports MAC address aging.
    D.    It replicates broadcast and multicast frames to multiple ports.
    E.    It conveys MAC address reachability information in a separate control protocol.
    F.    It can suppress the flooding of traffic.

    Answer: ACD

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    QUESTION 21
    Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true?

    211

    A.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
    event, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend the call as soon as the collected digits
    match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service configuration on both IP phones.
    B.    Each digit will arrive at Cisco Unified Communications Manager in a SIP NOTIFY message as a KPML
    event. When the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, Cisco Unified Communications
    Manager
    will extend the call only if the class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
    C.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of service
    configuration on both IP phones.
    D.    As soon as the user selects the Dial softkey, the SIP IP phone will forward all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call only if class of service configuration on both phones permits this action.
    E.    The SIP IP phone will wait for the interdigit timer to expire, and then send all digits to Cisco Unified
    Communications Manager in a SIP INVITE message. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will extend
    the call as soon as the collected digits match the extension of the SCCP IP phone, bypassing class of
    service configuration on both IP phones.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Cisco Type B SIP Phones offer functionality based SIP INVITE Message. Every key the end user presses triggers an individual SIP message. The first event is communicated with a SIP INVITE, but subsequent messages use SIP NOTIFY messages. The SIP NOTIFY messages send KPML events corresponding to any buttons or soft keys pressed by the user. Cisco Type B SIP IP Phones with SIP dial rules operate in the same manner as Cisco Type A phones with dial rules.

    QUESTION 22
    What does a comma accomplish when it is used in a SIP Dial Rule pattern that is associated with a Cisco 9971 IP Phone that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

    A.    It inserts a 500-millisecond pause between digits.
    B.    It causes the phone to generate a secondary dial tone.
    C.    It is a delimiter and has no significant dialing impact.
    D.    It indicates a timeout value of 5000 milliseconds.
    E.    It is an obsolete parameter and will be ignored.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Comma is accepted in speed dial as delimiter and pause. -Comma used to delineate dial string, FAC, CMC, and post connect digits For post connect digits, commas insert a 2 second delay Commas may be duplicated to create longer delays

    QUESTION 23
    Which Call Admission Control mechanism is supported for the Cisco Extension Mobility Cross Cluster solution?

    A.    Location CAC
    B.    RSVP CAC
    C.    H.323 gatekeeper
    D.    intercluster Enhanced Location CAC
    E.    visiting cluster’s LBM hub

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Configuring extension mobility cross cluster (EMCC) is nothing you should take lightly. EMCC requires a lot of configuration parameters including the exporting and importing of each neighbor cluster’s X.509v3 digital certificates. EMCC is supported over SIP trunks only. Presence is another feature that’s only supported over SIP trunks. If you want to be able to perform scalable Call Admission Control (CAC) in a distributed multi- cluster call processing model, you will need to point an H.225 or Gatekeeper controlled trunk to an H.323 Gatekeeper for CAC… but if you want to support presence and EMCC between clusters and maintain CAC.

    QUESTION 24
    Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP profile configuration parameters for a SIP intercluster trunk are mandatory to enable end-to-end RSVP SIP Preconditions between clusters? (Choose two.)

    A.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to Local RSVP.
    B.    Set the RSVP over SIP parameter to E2E.
    C.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Disabled.
    D.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK If 1xx Contains SDP.
    E.    Set the SIP Rel1XX Options parameter to Send PRACK for All 1xx Messages.
    F.    Check the Fall Back to Local RSVP check box.

    Answer: BD
    Explanation:
    Each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME should have the same configuration information. For example, Application ID should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster and Unified CME. RSVP Service parameters should be the same on each Unified Communications Manager cluster.

    QUESTION 25
    What is the number of directory URIs with which a Cisco Unified Communications Manager directory number can be associated?

    A.    1
    B.    up to 2
    C.    up to 3
    D.    up to 4
    E.    up to 5

    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

    QUESTION 26
    Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager partition will be associated with a directory URI that is configured for an end user with a primary extension?

    A.    null
    B.    none
    C.    directory URI
    D.    default
    E.    any partition that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator desires

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Cisco Unified Communications Manager supports dialing using directory URIs for call addressing. Directory URIs look like email addresses and follow the username@host format where the host portion is an IPv4 address or a fully qualified domain name. A directory URI is a uniform resource identifier, a string of characters that can be used to identify a directory number. If that directory number is assigned to a phone, Cisco Unified Communications Manager can route calls to that phone using the directory URI. URI dialing is available for SIP and SCCP endpoints that support directory URIs.

    QUESTION 27
    Which Call Control Discovery function allows the local Cisco Unified Communications Manager to listen for advertisements from remote call-control entities that use the SAF network?

    A.    CCD advertising service
    B.    CCD requesting service
    C.    SAF forwarder
    D.    SAF enabled trunks
    E.    CCD registration service

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    SAF and CCD will allow large distributed multi-cluster deployments to have the directory number (DN) ranges of each call routing element advertised dynamically over SAF. Cisco routers act as SAF Forwarders (SAFF), while the call routing elements (e.g. CUCM) act as clients that register with the routers to advertise their DN ranges and listen to the advertisements of other routers.

    QUESTION 28
    Which codec complexity mode, when deployed on Cisco IOS routers with DSPs using the C5510 chipset, supports the most G.711 calls per DSP?

    A.    Low
    B.    Medium
    C.    High
    D.    Secure
    E.    Flex

    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    The flex parameter allows the complexity to automatically adjust to either medium or high complexity depending on the needs of a call. For example, if a call uses the G.711 codec, the C5510 chipset automatically adjusts to the medium-complexity mode. However, if the call uses G.729, the C5510 chipset uses the high complexity mode

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