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    QUESTION 41
    Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

    411

    You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on VM2 by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
    You need to ensure that the next time VM2 restarts, you can connect to the WDS server by using PXE.
    Which virtual machine setting should you configure for VM2?

    A.    NUMA topology
    B.    Resource control
    C.    Resource metering
    D.    Virtual Machine Chimney
    E.    The VLAN ID
    F.    Processor Compatibility
    G.    The startup order
    H.    Automatic Start Action
    I.    Integration Services
    J.    Port mirroring
    K.    Single-root I/O virtualization

    Answer: G

    QUESTION 42
    Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

    421

    In the perimeter network, you install a new server named Server1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
    You need to join Server1 to the contoso.com domain.
    What should you use?

    A.    The New-ADComputer cmdlet
    B.    The djoin.exe command
    C.    The dsadd.exe command
    D.    The Add-Computer cmdlet

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    A. Creates a new Active Directory computer.
    B. Use djoin for offline join in the perimeter network
    C. Adds specific types of objects to the directory.
    D. Add the local computer to a domain or workgroup.
    http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee617245.aspx
    http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff793312(v=ws.10).aspx
    http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc753708(v=ws.10).aspx
    http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh849798.aspx

    QUESTION 43
    Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
    The domain contains three domain DC3 loses network connectivity due to a hardware failure.
    You plan to remove DC3 from the domain.
    You log on to DC3.
    You need to identify which service location (SRV) records are registered by DC3.
    What should you do?

    431

    A.    Open the %windir%\system32\config\netlogon.dns file.
    B.    Run dcdiag /test:dns
    C.    Open the %windir%\system32\dns\backup\adatum.com.dns file.
    D.    Run ipconfig /displaydns.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 44
    Your network contains an Active Directory forest that contains three domains. A group named Group1 is configured as a domain local distribution group in the forest root domain.
    You plan to grant Group1 read-only access to a shared folder named Share1. Share1 is located in a child domain.
    You need to ensure that the members of Group1 can access Share1.
    What should you do first?

    A.    Convert Group1 to a global distribution group.
    B.    Convert Group1 to a universal security group.
    C.    Convert Group1 to a universal distribution group.
    D.    Convert Group1 to a domain local security group

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 45
    Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2. One of the domain controllers is named DCI. The network contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
    You need to promote Server1 to a domain controller by using install from media (IFM).
    What should you do first?

    A.    Create a system state backup of DC1.
    B.    Create IFM media on DC1.
    C.    Upgrade DC1 to Windows Server 2012 R2.
    D.    Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
    E.    Run the Active Directory Domain Services Installation Wizard on DC1.

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    A. Backs up system state data to be restored
    C. Only valid option. You could install ADDS role on Server 1 and run ADDS configuration wizard andadd DC to existing domain
    D. Need to add ADDS role first
    E. Wrong server
    Installation from media does not work across different operating system versions. In other words, you must use a Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller to generate installation media to usefor another Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller installation. We can use the Install from media (IFM) option to install an Additional Domain Controller in an existing domainis the best option such as a branch office scenario where network is slow, unreliable and costly.
    IFM will minimize replication traffic during the installation because it uses restored backup files to populate theAD DS database. This will significantly reduce the amount of traffic copied over the WAN link.
    Things to remember:
    If you are deploying your first Domain Controller in the domain, you cannot use IFM.
    The OS will need to match the IFM media. (If you create a 2008 R2 IFM, promote a 2008 R2 DC) If you are creating a DC that will be a Global Catalog Server, create your IFM on a Global Catalog Server.
    If you are creating a DC that will be a DNS Server, create your IFM on a DNS Server. If you want to copy the SYSVOL, the DC on which you generate the installation media and the new DC mustbe at least running Windows Server 2008 with Service Pack 2 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
    Membership of the Domain Admins group is the minimum required to complete IFM.
    http://www.brandonlawson.com/active-directory/deploying-domain-controllers-with-installfrom-media-ifm/
    http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj574166.aspx
    http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc770654%28v=ws.10%29.aspx http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj574134.aspx Media
    used by the IFM option is created with Windows Server Backup or Ntdsutil.exe from another existingWindows Server 2012 R2 computer only You cannot use a Windows Server 2008 R2 or previous operating system to create media for a Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller.

    QUESTION 46
    Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. The servers are contained in a organizational unit (OU) named ServersOU.
    You need to create a group named Group1 on all of the servers in the domain.
    You must ensure that Group1 is added only to the servers.
    What should you configure?

    A.    a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to the Domain Controllers OU
    B.    a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to the domain
    C.    a Local Users and Groups preferences setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU
    D.    a Restricted Groups setting in a Group Policy linked to ServersOU

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 47
    Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains several thousand member servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. All of the computer accounts for the member servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named ServersAccounts. Servers are restarted only occasionally.
    You need to identify which servers were restarted during the last two days.
    What should you do?

    A.    Run dsquery computerand specify the -staiepwdpara meter.
    B.    Run Get-ADComputerand specify the SearchScope parameter.
    C.    Run Get-ADComputerand specify the IastLogonproperty.
    D.    Run dsquery serverand specify the -oparameter

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 48
    Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
    You log on to a domain controller by using an account named Admin1. Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group.
    You view the properties of a group named Group1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
    Group1 is located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
    You need to ensure that you can modify the Security settings of Group1 by using Active Directory Users and Computers.
    What should you do from Active Directory Users and Computers?

    481

    A.    From the View menu, select Users, Contacts, Groups, and Computers as containers.
    B.    Right-click OU1 and select Delegate Control
    C.    From the View menu, select Advanced Features.
    D.    Right-click contoso.com and select Delegate Control.

    Answer: C

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    QUESTION 51
    Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online.
    The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000.
    The company has the following migration requirements:

    – Move mailboxes in batches.
    – Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
    – Provide migration status reports to administrators.

    You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
    Which migration strategy should you use?

    A.    Staged migration
    B.    Cutover migration
    C.    IMAP migration
    D.    Hybrid migration (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    Drag and Drop Question
    You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
    You audit the Windows Azure Active Directory Rights Management configuration for the company.
    You need to view a log of the recent administrative commands performed against the Microsoft Rights Management Service.
    Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order

    311

    Answer:

    312

    QUESTION 32
    Your company has an Office 365 subscription.
    The network contains an Active Directory domain.
    You configure single sign-on for all users.
    You need to verify that single sign-on functions for the users who access Office 365 from the Internet.
    What should you run?

    A.    the Get-MSOLFederationProperty cmdlet
    B.    the Test-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet
    C.    the Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
    D.    the Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 33
    You are the administrator for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
    The company has an Office 365 subscription.
    Your need to prevent users from changing their user display name by using Outlook Web App. What should you do?

    A.    Run the Set-MsolCompanyContactInformation cmdlet.
    B.    Modify the default email address policy.
    C.    Run the Set-MsolUserPrincipalName cmdlet.
    D.    Modify the default role assignment policy.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    http://help.outlook.com/en-us/140/ff852817.aspx

    QUESTION 34
    You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company uses Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to provide single sign-on to cloud-based services.
    You enable multi- factor authentication.
    Users must NOT be required to use multi-factor authentication when they sign in from the company’s main office location. However, users must be required to verify their identity with a password and token when they access resources from remote locations.
    You need to configure the environment.
    What should you do?

    A.    Disable AD FS multi-factor authentication.
    B.    Configure an IP blacklist for the main office location.
    C.    Disable the AD FS proxy.
    D.    Configure an IP whitelist for the main office location.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn807156.aspx
    The Trusted IPs allows users to bypass Azure Multi-Factor Authentication for website requests originating from specific IP addresses or subnets. For example, you may want to exempt users from Azure Multi-Factor Authentication while logging in from the office. For this, you would specify the office subnet as an Trusted IPs entry. To configure Trusted IPs use the following procedure: bla bla bla :))

    QUESTION 35
    Hotspot Question
    An organization has over 10,000 users and uses a SQL-based Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server farm.
    You need to change the AD FS 2.0 service account password.
    What should you do? Select the correct answer from each list in the answer area.
    351

    Answer:

    352

    QUESTION 36
    Drag and Drop Question
    A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
    You install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server role on a server that runs Windows Server 2012.
    You install and configure the Federation Service Proxy role service.
    Users sign in by using the Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) protocol.
    You need to customize the sign-in pages for Office 365.
    Which pages should you customize? To answer, drag the appropriate page to the correct customization. Each page may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

    361

    Answer:

    362

    QUESTION 37
    Contoso uses Office 365 for collaboration services.
    You implement single sign-on (SSO) with Office 365 by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
    You need to implement Windows Azure multi-factor authentication.
    Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    On the AD FS federation server, run PhoneFactorAgentSetup.exe.
    B.    On the AD FS Federation server, run WindowsAzureSDK-x64.exe.
    C.    On the AD FS Federation server, run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Register-AdfsAuthenticationProvider.
    D.    On the AD FS Federation server, run FsConfigWizard.exe.
    E.    Run the Active Directory Domains and Trusts MMC snap-in. Register Windows Azure Multi-Factor
    Authentication Server as an additional authentication provider.
    F.    Run the Windows Azure Multi-Factor Authentication Server Authentication Configuration Wizard.

    Answer: BCF
    Explanation:
    http://blogs.technet.com/b/cbernier/archive/2013/12/02/multi-factor-authentication-the-simple-way.aspx

    QUESTION 38
    A company plans to deploy an Office 365 tenant.
    You have two servers named FS1 and FS2 that have the Federation Service Proxy role service installed.
    You must deploy Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) on Windows Server 2012.
    You need to configure name resolution for FS1 and FS2.
    What should you do?

    A.    On FS1 and FS2, add the cluster DNS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the
    hosts file.
    B.    On FS1 only, add the cluster DNS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the hosts file.
    C.    On FS1 only, add the cluster NetBIOS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the
    LMHOSTS file.
    D.    On FS1 and FS2, add the cluster NetBIOS name and IP address of the federation server farm to the
    LMHOSTS file.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    http://office365support.ca/setting-up-adfs-proxy-server-part-1/

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    QUESTION 21
    You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements for the tablets.
    Which two objects should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    a mobile device mailbox policy
    B.    an Outlook Web App policy
    C.    a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
    D.    a device access rule (more…)

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    QUESTION 21
    Drag and Drop Question
    You need to complete the configuration of the Search2016 farm.
    How should you complete the Windows PowerShell command? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

    211
    Answer:
    212

    QUESTION 22
    In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
    Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result these questions will not appear in the review screen.
    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to display the values for the Document Status and Department properties. You install a language pack. Does the solution meet the goal?

    A.    Yes
    B.    No

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    With language pack installation, SharePoint gets Multilingual User Interface which allows users to set the site’s language based on their preference and that’s the requirement. So the answer should be Yes.

    QUESTION 23
    In this section, you will see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
    Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to display the values for the Document Status and Department properties.
    You create a term set and Managed Metadata column.
    Does the solution meet the goal?

    A.    Yes
    B.    No

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The requirement is to change the values of metadata field settings from a single location and changes to the settings should be applied to all the site collections and existing documents. So Term Set and Managed Metadata column is the preferred way to implement the Document Status and Department properties.

    QUESTION 24
    Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. You need to display the values for the Document Status and Department properties.
    You configure variations on the site.
    Does the solution meet the goal?

    A.    Yes
    B.    No

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    With language pack installation, SharePoint gets Multilingual User Interface which allows users to set the site’s language based on their preference and that’s the requirement. So the answer should be Yes.

    QUESTION 25
    You need to configure SharePoint to support the required common document properties.
    Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Activate the Metadata Navigation and Filtering feature.
    B.    In each site collection, define content types and site columns.
    C.    Create a site collection. Define content types and site columns.
    D.    Activate the Content Type Syndication Hub feature.
    E.    Create a library. Create columns and save the library as a template.

    Answer: CD
    Explanation:
    The requirement is to manage the field settings from a single place. For that, content type hub should be implemented.

    QUESTION 26
    You need to ensure that employees can access published marketing materials.
    Which feature should you configure?

    A.    Promoted Links
    B.    Permission levels
    C.    Managed paths
    D.    Durable Links

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 27
    You need to configure the environment to support the needs of the procurement team.
    What should you create?

    A.    a display template
    B.    a document library template
    C.    a master page
    D.    a search results page

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    As per requirements, Search is the key feature for Procurement department. So, a Display Template should be implemented for this department.

    QUESTION 28
    Drag and Drop Question
    You need to configure the HR site.
    For each requirement, which action should you perform? To answer, drag the appropriate action to the correct requirement. Each action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

    281

    Answer:

    282

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    QUESTION 21
    Drag and Drop Question
    You need to replace the existing automatic call distribution (ACD) helpdesk with Skype for Business Server 2015 solution.
    Which three actions should you perform in sequence to recreate the ACD in Skype for Business Server 2015? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

    211

    Answer:

    212

    QUESTION 22
    You are troubleshooting audio call issues for users in Copenhagen.
    You need to resolve the issues.
    Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Create and configure a new network region and assign Copenhagen to this region.
    B.     Create an inter-site policy which includes Copenhagen and Berlin and apply the existing BandwidthPolicyProfile “LOW”.
    C.     Create an inter-site policy which includes Copenhagen and Moscow and specify the existing BandwidthPolicyProfile “LOW”.
    D.     Add Copenhagen to the Berlin network region.
    E.     Create and configure a new network region and assign Berlin and Copenhagen to this region.

    Answer: BCE

    QUESTION 23
    You need to plan a solution to allow masking of a calling number.
    How can a calling number of a Skype for Business user be changed to match the main number of the company?

    A.    Create a new normalization rule and add it to the global dial plan.
    B.    Use the Skype for Business control panel to mask the calling number.
    C.    Create a trunk translation rule that masks the called number.
    D.    Use the voice gateway to mask the called number.

    Answer: AD

    QUESTION 24
    You need to configure the trunks defined in the Skype for Business topology based on the requirements.
    Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Enable media bypass.
    B.    Enable centralized media processing.
    C.    Set Encryption Support Level to required.
    D.    Disable REFER support.

    Answer: AD

    QUESTION 25
    Drag and Drop Question
    You need to configure the Berlin public switched telephone network (PSTN) usages and voice routes.
    In which order will the PSTN usage policies be applied? To answer, move all PSTN usage policies from the list of PSTN usage policies to the answer area and arrange them in which they should be applied.

    251
    Answer:

    252

    QUESTION 26
    Users in Copenhagen report frequent audio call issues.
    You need to resolve the issues.
    Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Create a new region link between the MPLS region and the Berlin region.
    B.    Create and configure a new network region and assign only Copenhagen to this region.
    C.    Create an inter-site policy which includes Copenhagen and Moscow and specify the existing BandwidthPolicyProfile “LOW”.
    D.    Create an inter-site policy which includes Copenhagen and Berlin and apply the existing BandwidthPolicyProfile “LOW”.
    E.    Create and configure a new network region and assign Berlin and Copenhagen to this region.

    Answer: CDE

    QUESTION 27
    Drag and Drop Question
    You need to replace the existing call group pickup solution in Denmark with a Skype for Business solution. You need to prepare the Skype for Business Server 2015 environment to provide call group pickup functionality.
    Which three Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

    271
    Answer:
    272
    Explanation:
    “You need to prepare the Skype for Business Server 2015 environment to provide call group pickup functionality.”
    We’re just preparing the environment. We’re not creating the call park yet. After running the three cmdlets above, you can then run the NewCsCallParkOrbit cmdlet.

    QUESTION 28
    You are planning the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) audio bandwidth requirements for the Berlin wide area network (WAN) connection.
    You need to calculate the bandwidth usage network impact of P2P audio calls between Berlin and Moscow.
    What is the minimum bandwidth in megabits per second (Mbps) required for P2P calls between Berlin and Moscow?

    A.    8.7 Mbps
    B.    7.8 Mbps
    C.    9.1 Mbps
    D.    6.1 Mbps

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Silk Wideband is used for P2P audio. 44.3 kbps x 196 maximum users = 8.7 Mbps.

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    QUESTION 11
    What are three switch features found only on vSphere Distributed Switches? (Choose three.)

    A.    Network I/O Control
    B.    CDP
    C.    LLDP
    D.    SR-IOV
    E.    Port Mirroring

    Answer: ACE

    QUESTION 12
    You have deployed a two-tiered application using four virtual machines:

    – Two virtual machines are web application servers
    – Two virtual machines providing a clustered database service

    What feature can you configure to provide the most accurate account for only the traffic between the web servers and the clustered database?

    A.    On the vSphere Distributed Switch, configure the use of a port mirroring session using the Encapsulated Remote Mirroring (L3) Source session type.
    B.    On the vSphere Distributed Switch, configure the use of a port mirroring session using the Remote Mirroring Destination session type.
    C.    On the vSphere Distributed Switch, configure the use of an Isolated Private VLAN for the ports of the four virtual machines.
    D.    On the vSphere Distributed Switch, configure Netflow for the distributed virtual port group and enable Process internal flows only for the distributed switch.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 13
    Which three network policy settings can only be configured on a vSphere 5.5 Distributed Switch? (Choose three.)

    A.    Access Control Lists (ACLs)
    B.    Network I/O Control
    C.    LACP v2
    D.    NetFlow
    E.    DSCP Marking

    Answer: ACE

    QUESTION 14
    Which two vSphere components are required for NSX? (Choose two.)

    A.    Standard vSwitch
    B.    Network I/O Control
    C.    Distributed Port Group
    D.    VMkernel port

    Answer: CD

    QUESTION 15
    What is the minimum MTU size recommended by VMware for the physical network when deploying NSX for vSphere?

    A.    1550
    B.    1600
    C.    2148
    D.    9000

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 16
    A company wants to deploy VMware NSX for vSphere with no PIM and no IGMP configured in the underlying physical network. This company also must ensure that non- ESXi hosts do not receive broadcast, unknown unicast or multicast (BUM) traffic.
    Which replication mode should the logical switches be deployed with?

    A.    Unicast Replication Mode
    B.    Multicast Replication Mode
    C.    Hybrid Replication Mode
    D.    Transport Zone Mode

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 17
    Your data center clusters are configured as shown in the exhibit:

    171

    Core0 uses Virtual SAN and hosts virtual machines running the following components:

    – vCenter Server
    – Single Sign-On Server
    – Update Manager
    – SQL Server database

    Core1, Core2, and Core3 use a single Fibre Channel attached storage array. Core1 hosts over 500 virtual machines. Core2 hosts over 400 virtual machines. Core3 hosts 100 virtual machines.
    Following VMware’s best practices, NSX Controller components should be deployed to which location(s)?

    A.    Deploy three NSX Controllers, one on each host of Core0.
    B.    Deploy four NSX controllers, one on each cluster in the data center.
    C.    Deploy 27 NSX controllers, one for each host in the data center.
    D.    Deploy three NSX controllers. Deploy one in Core1, one in Core2, and one in Core3.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 18
    Your data center is made up of two VMware vCenter Server instances.
    Each vCenter Server manages three clusters with 16 hosts per cluster.
    In preparing for your VMware NSX deployment, how many vShield Endpoint instances will you have?

    A.    2
    B.    6
    C.    48
    D.    96

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 19
    After deploying NSX, an administrator does not see the Networking & Security tab when connecting to the vCenter Server using the vSphere Web Client.
    What should the administrator do?

    A.    Register the NSX Manager with the vCenter Server.
    B.    Register the NSX Manager with the Inventory Service.
    C.    The NSX Controllers must be deployed before NSX Manager is available.
    D.    The NSX Manager must be configured to use Single Sign-On before it will be available.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 20
    A company hosts an internal website on multiple virtual machines attached to a Logical Switch with VNI 7321. A Distributed Router serves as the virtual machines’ default gateway.
    When an user resolves the URL for the website, the internal DNS server responds with the IP address of one of the virtual machine’s IP addresses in a round robin fashion. This approach results in some virtual machines having a much higher number of user sessions than others.
    The company wants to deploy a NSX Edge Service Load Balancer to improve on this situation. Which distribution method can be configured on the NSX Edge Load Balancer to meet the company’s needs?

    A.    LEAST_CONN
    B.    IP_HASH
    C.    LEAST_LOAD
    D.    URI

    Answer: A

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    QUESTION 11
    Which three prerequisites must be in place prior to enabling secure boot for a virtual machine? (Choose three.)

    A.    VirtualMachine.Config.Settings privileges
    B.    an encrypted USB drive
    C.    Virtual Hardware version 13 or later
    D.    Virtual Hardware version 12 or later
    E.    EFI firmware

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    QUESTION 11
    Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)

    A.    Utilize the vmdir command.
    B.    Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
    C.    Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
    D.    Utilize the dc rep command.

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    QUESTION 11
    Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)

    A.    Utilize the vmdir command.
    B.    Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
    C.    Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
    D.    Utilize the dc rep command.

    Answer: AB
    Explanation:
    To manage VMware directory service, you can use vmdir command and vsphere web client. VMware directory service is always managed using vmdir command which is specifically used for directory services.

    QUESTION 12
    What are two sample roles that are provided with vCenter Server by default? (Choose two.)

    A.    Virtual machine User
    B.    Network Administrator
    C.    Content Library Administrator
    D.    Storage Administrator

    Answer: AB
    Reference:
    https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=35TE4cSycNAC&pg=PA97&lpg=PA97&dq=sample+roles+that+are+provided+with+vCenter+Server+by+default&source=bl&ots=ggd5VKGky5 &sig=-lc0Juby-tkvddWsrG_zHgEDTQY&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CDcQ6AEwBWoVChMIlZH2x8WExgIVxDoUCh2N1AC2#v=onepage&q=sample%20roles%20that%20are%20provided%20with%20vCenter%20Server%20by%20default&f=false

    QUESTION 13
    Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)

    A.    CIM Server
    B.    Single Sign-On
    C.    Direct Console UI
    D.    Syslog Server
    E.    vSphere Web Access

    Answer: ACD

    QUESTION 14
    An administrator would like to use the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) as an Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA). The first two steps performed are:

    – Replace the Root Certificate
    – Replace Machine Certificates (Intermediate CA)

    Which two steps would need to be performed next? (Choose two.)

    A.    Replace Solution User Certificates (Intermediate CA)
    B.    Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate (Intermediate CA)
    C.    Replace the VMware Directory Service Certificate
    D.    Replace Solution User Certificates

    Answer: AC
    Explanation:
    You can replace the VMCA root certificate with a third-party CA-signed certificate that includes VMCA in the certificate chain. Going forward, all certificates that VMCA generates include the full chain. You can replace existing certificates with newly generated certificates. This approach combines the security of third-party CA-signed certificate with the convenience of automated certificate management.
    Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-5FE583A2-3737-4B62-A905-5BB38D479AE0.html

    QUESTION 15
    Which three options are available for ESXi Certificate Replacement? (Choose three.)

    A.    VMware Certificate Authority mode
    B.    Custom Certificate Authority mode
    C.    Thumbprint mode
    D.    Hybrid Deployment
    E.    VMware Certificate Endpoint Authority Mode

    Answer: ABC
    Explanation:
    You can perform different types of certificate replacement depending on company policy and requirements for the system that you are configuring. You can perform each replacement with the vSphere Certificate Manager utility or manually by using the CLIs included with your installation.
    VMCA is included in each Platform Services Controller and in each embedded deployment. VMCA provisions each node, each vCenter Server solution user, and each ESXi host with a certificate that is signed by VMCA as the certificate authority. vCenter Server solution users are groups of vCenter Server services. See vSphere Security for a list of solution users.
    You can replace the default certificates. For vCenter Server components, you can use a set of command-line tools included in your installation. You have several options.
    Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%2FGUID-4469A6D3-048A-471C-9CB4-518A15EA2AC0.html

    QUESTION 16
    Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi 6.x host and users are restricted from logging into the Direct Console User Interface (DCUI).
    Which two statements are true given this configuration? (Choose two.)

    A.    A user granted administrative privileges in the Exception User list can login.
    B.    A user defined in the DCUI.Access without administrative privileges can login.
    C.    A user defined in the ESXi Admins domain group can login.
    D.    A user set to the vCenter Administrator role can login.

    Answer: AB
    Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319-F8991839D265.html

    QUESTION 17
    Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
    Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with administrator privileges?

    A.    Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
    B.    Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
    C.    No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
    D.    Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.

    Answer: B
    Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-F8F105F7-CF93-46DF-9319-F8991839D265.html

    QUESTION 18
    A common root user account has been configured for a group of ESXi 6.x hosts.
    Which two steps should be taken to mitigate security risks associated with this configuration? (Choose two.)

    A.    Remove the root user account from the ESXi host.
    B.    Set a complex password for the root account and limit its use.
    C.    Use ESXi Active Directory capabilities to assign users the administrator role.
    D.    Use Lockdown mode to restrict root account access.

    Answer: BC
    Explanation:
    To address the security risks, you need to set a complex password for the root account and make sure only authorized personnel use it. The second step is to use ESXi active directory to assign the administrator role to users.

    QUESTION 19
    An administrator wants to configure an ESXi 6.x host to use Active Directory (AD) to manage users and groups. The AD domain group ESX Admins is planned for administrative access to the host.
    Which two conditions should be considered when planning this configuration? (Choose two.)

    A.    If administrative access for ESX Admins is not required, this setting can be altered.
    B.    The users in ESX Admins are not restricted by Lockdown Mode.
    C.    An ESXi host provisioned with Auto Deploy cannot store AD credentials.
    D.    The users in ESX Admins are granted administrative privileges in vCenter Server.

    Answer: AC
    Explanation:
    The setting can be altered if administrative access for ESX admins is not required. The second rule is that the ESX admins users should not be restricted by Lockdown mode.

    QUESTION 20
    Which two advanced features should be disabled for virtual machines that are only hosted on a vSphere system? (Choose two.)

    A.    isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable
    B.    isolation.tools.ghi.launchmenu.change
    C.    isolation.tools.bbs.disable
    D.    isolation.tools.hgfsServerSet.enable

    Answer: AB
    Explanation:
    Because VMware virtual machines run in many VMware products in addition to vSphere, some virtual machine parameters do not apply in a vSphere environment. Although these features do not appear in vSphere user interfaces, disabling them reduces the number of vectors through which a guest operating system could access a host. Use the following .vmx setting to disable these features:
    isolation.tools.unity.push.update.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.l”unch”enu.change = “TRUE” isolation.tools.ghi.a”tolo”on.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.hgfsS”rver”et.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.memSc”edFa”eSampleStats.disable = “TRUE” isolation.tools.getCr”ds.d”sable = “TRUE”
    Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vmtools.install.doc%2FGUID-685722FA-9009-439C-9142-18A9E7C592EA.html

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    QUESTION 11
    A Long-Distance vMotion migration cannot complete.
    Which three situations could cause this? (Choose three.)

    A.    The license currently in use for the two hosts in vSphere Enterprise Edition.
    B.    The round-trip time between the hosts is greater than 150 milliseconds.
    C.    The virtual machine is configured to use Virtual NVMe disks.
    D.    The vMotion traffic to the destination host is on the default TCP/IP stack.
    E.    The license currently in use for the two hosts is vSphere Enterprise Plus Edition.

    Answer: BDE
    Explanation:
    https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2106949

    QUESTION 12
    Which Distributed Switch Load Balancing option requires configuration of the physical Ethernet switch to operate properly?

    A.    Route based on originating virtual port
    B.    Use explicit failover
    C.    Route based on IP hash
    D.    Route based on physical NIC load
    E.    Route based on source MAC hash

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    http://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/support/landing-pages/virtual-support-day-best-practices-virtual-networking-june-2012.pdf

    QUESTION 13
    Which two choices are valid ways to patch an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

    A.    utilizing the esxcli Command Line Interface
    B.    vSphere Update Manager
    C.    vRealize Operations Manager
    D.    configuring a Host Profile

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 14
    Which three virtual hardware configurations will allow snapshots? (Choose three.)

    A.    Physical Mode RDMs
    B.    bus sharing
    C.    Full memory reservation
    D.    Virtual Mode RDMs
    E.    16+ vCPU

    Answer: BDE

    QUESTION 15
    What tool is utilized for detailed performance monitoring of the vCenter Server Appliance?

    A.    vim-cmd
    B.    esxtop
    C.    Perfmon
    D.    vimtop

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/topic/com.vmware.Icbase/PDF/vsphere-esxi-vcenter-server-60-monitoring-performance-guide.pdf

    QUESTION 16
    Which is the VDP appliance available storage configuration maximum?

    A.    2 TB
    B.    62 TB
    C.    8 TB
    D.    4 TB

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    https://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2012/08/setting-the-record-straight-on-vmware-vsphere-data-protection.html

    QUESTION 17
    A vSphere Administrator has been tasked with ensuring that 500 virtual desktops are unable to communicate with one another, but can communicate with required services.
    Which two solutions does VMware recommend? (Choose two.)

    A.    VMware NSX Distributed Firewall
    B.    Private VLAN
    C.    vSphere Host Firewall
    D.    Port Filtering

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 18
    What is the maximum supported number of Virtual SCSI adapters per VM in vSphere 6.5?

    A.    8
    B.    4
    C.    2
    D.    6

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    https://www.vmware.com/pdf/vsphere6/r65/vsphere-65-configuration-maximums.pdf (page 9)

    QUESTION 19
    A VMware vSphere 6.x Administrator is tasked with expanding a current vRealize Log Insight Deployment.
    What two steps will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

    A.    Run the startup wizard and select Join Existing Deployment.
    B.    Login to the vRealize Log Insight Management UI and select Add New Node.
    C.    Deploy another vRealize Log Insight server from the OVF.
    D.    Deploy and install vRealize Log Insight on a new Linux virtual machine.

    Answer: AB

    QUESTION 20
    Which two resource types can be limited on the vApp level? (Choose two.)

    A.    CPU
    B.    Storage
    C.    Memory
    D.    Network

    Answer: BD

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    QUESTION 31
    Scenario: A Citrix user is connecting to a Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) in an environment where Flash redirection is enabled for the entire Site with the default settings. However, the HDX protocol is NOT able to determine network security.
    What will occur when the user attempts to access Flash content within the user session for the first time?

    A.    A dialog box appear and lets the user choose how Flash is handled for that session.
    B.    No dialog box appears and Flash content is automatically played on the server.
    C.    A dialog box appears and lets the user choose how Flash is handled for future sessions.
    D.    No dialog box appears and Flash content is automatically played on the client device.

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    QUESTION 11
    What does a Citrix Administrator need to do on NetScaler Gateway to ensure that users accept the terms and conditions before they can log on using NetScaler Gateway?

    A.    Configure a Responder policy.
    B.    Upload an HTML file to the NetScaler appliance.
    C.    Create an end user license agreement (EULA).
    D.    Configure a Rewrite policy.

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    QUESTION 11
    A Citrix Administrator needs to update a master image for random/non-persistent desktops based on Machine Creation Services.

    Which consequence does the administrator need to be aware of when updating the master image?

    A.    A full new vDisk will be created.
    B.    A new Personal vDisk will be created.
    C.    A new full copy from the snapshot will be created.
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    QUESTION 41
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to set up an alert on a service that is important for Desktop OS machine performance. The infrastructure includes 3000 Desktop OS machines and two Provisioning Services servers.

    Which service on the Provisioning Services server should the administrator monitor?

    A.    TFTP
    B.    BootP
    C.    Stream
    D.    Two-Stage Boot

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 42
    Which tool could a Citrix Administrator use to generate a graphical performance report of memory for the last two quarters?

    A.    XenCenter
    B.    Citrix Studio
    C.    Citrix Director
    D.    XenServer tools
    E.    Provisioning Services Console

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 43
    Scenario: A line of business application has been deployed as a hosted server application in XenDesktop. The deadline for a critical project is quickly approaching. Users report that the application is slower than usual. The Server OS machines are non-persistent.

    Where should a Citrix Administrator gather information to resolve the performance issue?

    A.    Citrix Studio
    B.    Citrix Director
    C.    Provisioning Services vDisk statistics
    D.    Performance Monitor on the Delivery Controller

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 44
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator performed maintenance activities in a XenDesktop environment. The next day, a second Citrix Administrator discovers that server-hosted applications are missing from Citrix Receiver.

    Where could the second administrator go to determine the cause of this issue?

    A.    Citrix Director
    B.    StoreFront store
    C.    Configuration Logging
    D.    Delivery Controller Windows Event logs

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 45
    Scenario: A Citrix Administrator manages a XenDesktop site for a Call Center consisting of 2000 Desktop OS machines. Many users are unable to log on to the Desktop OS machines.
    The administrator suspects there is an issue with the Desktop OS machines that is impacting the user’s ability to log on.

    Where should the administrator look to gather information about this issue?

    A.    HDX Insight in Citrix Director
    B.    Logging node of Citrix Studio
    C.    Citrix Director on the Failed Desktop OS machines node
    D.    The Provisioning Services Console on the Device Collection node

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 46
    Scenario: Users in an environment access hosted applications from thin clients connected to overhead projectors. Some of these users have complained about delays and interruptions in the video playing when viewing videos that require Adobe Flash player.

    Where could a Citrix Administrator gather information to resolve this issue?

    A.    Logging node in Citrix Studio
    B.    Session Detail in Citrix Director
    C.    Activity Manager in Citrix Director
    D.    Event logs on the Delivery Controller

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 47
    Where in Citrix Director could a Citrix Administrator validate that Flash Redirection is enabled?

    A.    User Details
    B.    Activity Monitor
    C.    The Network tab
    D.    The Sessions tab

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 48
    Where in Citrix Director could a Citrix Administrator monitor slow performing applications?

    A.    Dashboard
    B.    Sessions tab
    C.    User session details
    D.    Logon performance tab

    Answer: C

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    QUESTION 31
    Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).

    A.    Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
    B.    Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
    C.    Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
    D.    Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
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    QUESTION 11
    An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?

    A.    Review past security incidents and their resolution
    B.    Rewrite the existing security policy
    C.    Implement an intrusion prevention system
    D.    Install honey pot systems

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

    QUESTION 12
    A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration.
    Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability?

    A.    Host-based firewall
    B.    IDS
    C.    IPS
    D.    Honeypot

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of “flavors” and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization.
    IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a firewall) or changing the attack’s content.

    QUESTION 13
    Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
    Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:

    – Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
    – Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
    – Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2

    131
    132

    Answer:
    Use the following answer for this simulation task.
    Below table has all the answers required for this question.

    133

    Explanation:
    Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule’s criteria:

    Block the connection
    Allow the connection
    Allow the connection only if it is secured

    TCP is responsible for providing a reliable, one-to-one, connection-oriented session.
    TCP establishes a connection and ensures that the other end receives any packets sent.
    Two hosts communicate packet results with each other. TCP also ensures that packets are decoded and sequenced properly. This connection is persistent during the session.
    When the session ends, the connection is torn down.
    UDP provides an unreliable connectionless communication method between hosts.
    UDP is considered a best-effort protocol, but it’s considerably faster than TCP.
    The sessions don’t establish a synchronized session like the kind used in TCP, and UDP doesn’t guarantee error-free communications.
    The primary purpose of UDP is to send small packets of information.
    The application is responsible for acknowledging the correct reception of the data.
    Port 22 is used by both SSH and SCP with UDP.
    Port 443 is used for secure web connections ?HTTPS and is a TCP port.
    Thus to make sure only the Accounting computer has HTTPS access to the Administrative server you should use TCP port 443 and set the rule to allow communication between 10.4.255.10/24 (Accounting) and 10.4.255.101 (Administrative server1) Thus to make sure that only the HR computer has access to Server2 over SCP you need use of TCP port 22 and set the rule to allow communication between 10.4.255.10/23 (HR) and 10.4.255.2 (server2)
    Thus to make sure that the IT computer can access both the Administrative servers you need to use a port and accompanying port number and set the rule to allow communication between:
    10.4.255.10.25 (IT computer) and 10.4.255.101 (Administrative server1)
    10.4.255.10.25 (IT computer) and 10.4.255.102 (Administrative server2)

    QUESTION 14
    Hotspot Question
    The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.

    1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
    2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port
    3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port.

    Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.

    141

    142

    Answer:

    143

    Explanation:
    Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default.
    Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443.
    Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the default SCP port, which is TCP Port 22
    Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing servers located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.

    QUESTION 15
    Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers?

    A.    deny udp any any port 53
    B.    deny ip any any
    C.    deny tcp any any port 53
    D.    deny all dns packets

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.

    QUESTION 16
    A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic.
    Which of the following would accomplish this task?

    A.    Deny TCP port 68
    B.    Deny TCP port 69
    C.    Deny UDP port 68
    D.    Deny UDP port 69

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesn’t require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.

    QUESTION 17
    Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor?

    A.    Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
    B.    Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
    C.    Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
    D.    Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.

    QUESTION 18
    A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another?

    A.    Implement a virtual firewall
    B.    Install HIPS on each VM
    C.    Virtual switches with VLANs
    D.    Develop a patch management guide

    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.

    QUESTION 19
    A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks.
    Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces?

    A.    The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128.
    B.    The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
    C.    The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.
    D.    The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.

    QUESTION 20
    Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramp up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend?

    A.    Create a VLAN for the SCADA
    B.    Enable PKI for the MainFrame
    C.    Implement patch management
    D.    Implement stronger WPA2 Wireless

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesn’t need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldn’t be able to do so.

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    QUESTION 11
    You are managing a project in an organization is characterized by with rigid rules and policies and strict supervisory controls. Your project, sponsored by your CEO who is new to the company, is to make the organization less bureaucratic and more participative. You are developing your project management plan. Given the organization as it now is set up, as you prepare your plan, you can use which of the following organizational process assets______________.

    A.    Guidelines and criteria
    B.    Project management body of knowledge for your industry
    C.    Organizational structure and culture
    D.    The existing infrastructure

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    While you are managing a different type of project, the organization has managed projects before and therefore may have as part of its organizational process assets a project management template, which sets forth guidelines and criteria to tailor the organization’s processes to satisfy specific needs of the project.

    QUESTION 12
    You are fairly new to managing a project but have been a team member for many years. You are pleased you were selected to manage your company’s 2015 model line of hybrid vehicles. You are now planning your project and have been preparing the subsidiary plans as well. You realize some project documents also are required to help manage your project. An example of one that you believe will be especial helpful is the______________.

    A.    Business case
    B.    Key performance indicators
    C.    Project management information system
    D.    Project statement of work

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The project statement of work is a useful document as it describes the products, services, or results the project is to deliver. It references the business need, product scope description, and the strategic plan.

    QUESTION 13
    You work for a telecommunications company, and when developing a project management plan for a new project, you found that you must tailor some company processes because the product is so different than those products typically produced by your company. To tailor these processes, you will follow______________.

    A.    Standardized guidelines and work instructions
    B.    Stakeholder risk tolerances
    C.    Expert judgment
    D.    Structure of your company

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Standardized guidelines and work instructions are an organizational process asset to consider as the project management plan is developed. They include guidelines and criteria to tailor the organization’s set of standard processes to satisfy the specific needs of the project.

    QUESTION 14
    You are implementing a project management methodology for your company that requires you to establish a change control board. Which one of the following statements best describes a change control board?

    A.    Recommended for use on all (large and small) projects
    B.    Used to review, evaluate, approve, delay, or reject changes to the project
    C.    Managed by the project manager, who also serves as its secretary
    D.    Composed of key project team members

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Used to review, evaluate, approve, delay, or reject changes to the project The change control board’s powers and responsibilities should be well defined and agreed upon by key stakeholders. On some projects, multiple change control boards may exist with different
    areas of responsibility.

    QUESTION 15
    An automated tool, project records, performance indicators, data bases, and financials are examples of items in______________.

    A.    Organizational process assets
    B.    Project management information systems
    C.    Project management planning approaches
    D.    The tools and techniques for project plan development

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    The items listed are part of these systems, a tool and technique in both processes.
    PMI®, PMBOK® Guide, 2013, 84, 92

    QUESTION 16
    You realize that projects represent change, and on your projects, you always seem to have a number of change requests to consider. In your current project to manage the safety of the nation’s cheese products and the testing methods used, you decided to prepare a formal change management plan. An often overlooked type of change request is______________.

    A.    Adding new subject matter experts to your team
    B.    Updates
    C.    Work performance information
    D.    Enhancing the reviews performed by your project’s governance board

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Change requests may include corrective actions, preventive actions, defect repairs, or updates. Updates are changes to formally controlled project documents or plans to reflect modified or additional content.

    QUESTION 17
    You have been directed to establish a change control system for your company, but must convince your colleagues to use it. To be effective, the change control system must include______________.

    A.    Procedures that define how project documents may be changed
    B.    Specific change requests expected on the project and plans to respond to each one
    C.    Performance reports that forecast project changes
    D.    A description of the functional and physical characteristics of an item or system

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    A change control system is a collection of formal, documented procedures that define the process used to control change and approve or reject changes to project documents, deliverables, or baselines. It includes the paperwork, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary to authorize changes.

    QUESTION 18
    You are working on the next generation of software for mobile phones for your telecommunications company. While time to market is critical, you know from your work on other projects that management reviews can be helpful and plan to use them on your project. You are documenting them as part of your______________.

    A.    Governance plan
    B.    Change management plan
    C.    Performance reviews
    D.    Project management plan

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The project management plan describes how the project will be executed and monitored and controlled. While it contains a number of subsidiary plans, it also contains other items including information on key management reviews for contents, their extent, and timing to address open
    issues and pending decisions.

    QUESTION 19
    Your cost control specialist has developed a budget plan for your project to add a second surgical center to the Children’s Hospital. As you analyze cash flow requirements, you notice that cash flow activity is greatest in the closing phase. You find this unusual because on most projects the largest portion of the budget spent during______________.

    A.    Initiating
    B.    Monitoring and Controlling
    C.    Controlling
    D.    Executing

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Executing is where the majority of the budget is spent because this is the process where all of the resources (people, material, etc.) are applied to the activities and tasks in the project management plan.
    PMI®, PMBOK® Guide, 2013, 56

    QUESTION 20
    You are project manager for a systems integration effort and need to procure the hardware components from external sources. Your subcontracts administrator has told you to prepare a product description, which is referenced in a______________.

    A.    Project statement of work
    B.    Contract scope statement
    C.    Request for proposal
    D.    Contract

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Project statement of work
    The project statement of work describes in a narrative form the products, services, or results that
    the project will deliver. It references the product scope description as well as the business needs and the strategic plan.

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    QUESTION 11
    If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

    A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
    B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
    C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
    D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 12
    Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

    A.    SOW
    B.    PO
    C.    SU
    D.    MOU

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 13
    A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
    Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

    A.    Risk register
    B.    Issue log
    C.    Communication plan
    D.    Status report

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 14
    Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

    A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
    B.    A program contains an element of the project.
    C.    A program is a part of a project.
    D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 15
    Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

    A.    Test-driven
    B.    Daily standup meetings
    C.    Short project durations
    D.    Defined list of requirements

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 16
    Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

    A.    Relocation
    B.    Scope
    C.    Business process
    D.    Schedule
    E.    Risk event

    Answer: AC

    QUESTION 17
    A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
    Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

    A.    Project charter
    B.    Project management plan
    C.    Project statement of work
    D.    Project schedule

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 18
    The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

    A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
    B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
    C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
    D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
    E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

    Answer: CD

    QUESTION 19
    Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

    A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
    B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
    C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
    D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 20
    A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

    A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
    B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
    C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
    D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
    E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

    Answer: AB

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