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  • [March 2018] New Lead2pass CompTIA PK0-004 New Questions Free Download 115q

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    If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

    A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
    B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
    C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
    D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

    Answer: B

    Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

    A.    SOW
    B.    PO
    C.    SU
    D.    MOU

    Answer: B

    A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
    Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

    A.    Risk register
    B.    Issue log
    C.    Communication plan
    D.    Status report

    Answer: A

    Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

    A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
    B.    A program contains an element of the project.
    C.    A program is a part of a project.
    D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

    Answer: A

    Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

    A.    Test-driven
    B.    Daily standup meetings
    C.    Short project durations
    D.    Defined list of requirements

    Answer: B

    Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

    A.    Relocation
    B.    Scope
    C.    Business process
    D.    Schedule
    E.    Risk event

    Answer: AC

    A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
    Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

    A.    Project charter
    B.    Project management plan
    C.    Project statement of work
    D.    Project schedule

    Answer: B

    The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

    A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
    B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
    C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
    D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
    E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

    Answer: CD

    Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

    A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
    B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
    C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
    D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

    Answer: B

    A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

    A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
    B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
    C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
    D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
    E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

    Answer: AB

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  • [March 2018] Lead2pass PCNSE7 Exam Questions Free Download 226q

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    After pushing a security policy from Panorama to a PA-3020 firewall, the firewall administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama’s traffic logs. What could be the problem?

    A.    A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
    B.    Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.
    C.    The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
    D.    None of the firewall’s policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile

    Answer: D

    A critical US-CERT notification is published regarding a newly discovered botnet. The malware is very evasive and is not reliably detected by endpoint antivirus software. Furthermore, SSL is used to tunnel malicious traffic to command-and-control servers on the internet and SSL Forward Proxy Decryption is not enabled.
    Which component once enabled on a perimeter firewall will allow the identification of existing infected hosts in an environment?

    A.    Anti-Spyware profiles applied outbound security policies with DNS Query action set to sinkhole
    B.    File Blocking profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
    C.    Vulnerability Protection profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to block
    D.    Antivirus profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert

    Answer: A
    Starting with PAN-OS 6.0, DNS sinkhole is an action that can be enabled in Anti-Spyware profiles. A DNS sinkhole can be used to identify infected hosts on a protected network using DNS traffic in environments where the firewall can see the DNS query to a malicious URL.
    The DNS sinkhole enables the Palo Alto Networks device to forge a response to a DNS query for a known malicious domain/URL and causes the malicious domain name to resolve to a definable IP address (fake IP) that is given to the client. If the client attempts to access the fake IP address and there is a security rule in place that blocks traffic to this IP, the information is recorded in the logs.

    Which two statements are correct for the out-of-box configuration for Palo Alto Networks NGFWs? (Choose two)

    A.    The devices are pre-configured with a virtual wire pair out the first two interfaces.
    B.    The devices are licensed and ready for deployment.
    C.    The management interface has an IP address of and allows SSH and HTTPS connections.
    D.    A default bidirectional rule is configured that allows Untrust zone traffic to go to the Trust zone.
    E.     The interfaces are pingable.

    Answer: AC

    A network security engineer is asked to perform a Return Merchandise Authorization (RMA) on a firewall
    Which part of files needs to be imported back into the replacement firewall that is using Panorama?

    A.    Device state and license files
    B.    Configuration and serial number files
    C.    Configuration and statistics files
    D.    Configuration and Large Scale VPN (LSVPN) setups file

    Answer: A

    A network engineer has revived a report of problems reaching through vr1 on the firewall. The routing table on this firewall is extensive and complex.
    Which CLI command will help identify the issue?

    A.    test routing fib virtual-router vr1
    B.    show routing route type static destination
    C.    test routing fib-lookup ip virtual-router vr1
    D.    show routing interface

    Answer: C
    This document explains how to perform a fib lookup for a particular destination within a particular virtual router on a Palo Alto Networks firewall.
    1. Select the desired virtual router from the list of virtual routers configured with the command:
    > test routing fib-lookup virtual-router <value>
    2. Specify a destination IP address:
    > test routing fib-lookup virtual-router default ip <ip address>

    Which two mechanisms help prevent a spilt brain scenario an Active/Passive High Availability (HA) pair? (Choose two)

    A.    Configure the management interface as HA3 Backup
    B.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA1 Backup
    C.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA2 Backup
    D.    Configure the management interface as HA2 Backup
    E.    Configure the management interface as HA1 Backup
    F.    Configure ethernet1/1 as HA3 Backup

    Answer: BE
    E: For firewalls without dedicated HA ports, select two data interfaces for the HA2 link and the backup HA1 link. Then, use an Ethernet cable to connect these in-band HA interfaces across both firewalls.
    Use the management port for the HA1 link and ensure that the management ports can connect to each other across your network.
    1. In Device > High Availability > General, edit the Control Link (HA1) section.
    2. Select the interface that you have cabled for use as the HA1 link in the Port drop down menu. Set the IP address and netmask. Enter a Gateway IP address only if the HA1 interfaces are on separate subnets. Do not add a gateway if the devices are directly connected.

    What are three valid actions in a File Blocking Profile? (Choose three)

    A.    Forward
    B.    Block
    C.    Alret
    D.    Upload
    E.    Reset-both
    F.    Continue

    Answer: BCF
    You can configure a file blocking profile with the following actions:
    Forward – When the specified file type is detected, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis. A log
    is also generated in the data filtering log.
    Block – When the specified file type is detected, the file is blocked and a customizable block
    page is presented to the user. A log is also generated in the data filtering log.
    Alert – When the specified file type is detected, a log is generated in the data filtering log.
    Continue – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable response page is presented
    to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. A log is also generated in
    the data filtering log. Because this type of forwarding action requires user interaction, it is only
    applicable for web traffic.
    Continue-and-forward – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable continuation
    page is presented to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. If the
    user clicks through the continue page to download the file, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis.
    A log is also generated in the data filtering log.

    An Administrator is configuring an IPSec VPN toa Cisco ASA at the administrator’s home and experiencing issues completing the connection. The following is th output from the command:


    What could be the cause of this problem?

    A.    The public IP addresses do not match for both the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA.
    B.    The Proxy IDs on the Palo Alto Networks Firewall do not match the settings on the ASA.
    C.    The shared secrets do not match between the Palo Alto firewall and the ASA
    D.    The deed peer detection settings do not match between the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA

    Answer: B
    The Proxy IDs could have been checked for mismatch.
    References: https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/IPSec-Error-IKE-Phase-1-Negotiation-is-Failed-as-Initiator-Main/ta-p/59532

    Which interface configuration will accept specific VLAN IDs?

    A.    Tab Mode
    B.    Subinterface
    C.    Access Interface
    D.    Trunk Interface

    Answer: B
    You can only assign a single VLAN to a subinterface, and not to the physical interface. Each subinterface must have a VLAN ID before it can pass traffic.

    Palo Alto Networks maintains a dynamic database of malicious domains.
    Which two Security Platform components use this database to prevent threats? (Choose two)

    A.    Brute-force signatures
    B.    BrightCloud Url Filtering
    C.    PAN-DB URL Filtering
    D.    DNS-based command-and-control signatures

    Answer: CD
    C: PAN-DB categorizes URLs based on their content at the domain, file and page level, and receives updates from WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment every 30 minutes to make sure that, when web content changes, so do categorizations. This continuous feedback loop enables you to keep pace with the rapidly changing nature of the web, automatically.
    D: DNS is a very necessary and ubiquitous application, as such, it is a very commonly abused protocol for command-and-control and data exfiltration. This tech brief summarizes the DNS classification, inspection and protection capabilities supported by our next-generation security platform, which includes:
    1.    Malformed DNS messages (symptomatic of vulnerability exploitation attack).
    2.    DNS responses with suspicious composition (abused query types, DNS-based denial of service attacks).
    3.    DNS queries for known malicious domains. Our ability to prevent threats from hiding within DNS
    The passive DNS network feature allows you to opt-in to share anonymized DNS query and response data with our global passive DNS network. The data is continuously mined to discover malicious domains that are then added to the PAN-OS DNS signature set that is delivered daily, enabling timely detection of compromised hosts within the network and the disruption of command-and-control channels that rely on name resolution.

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    Which two features provide physical path resiliency from a Windows 2016 server to an iSCSI LUN on a 12-node ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)

    A.    broadcast domains
    B.    MPIO
    C.    failover groups
    D.    ALUA (more…)

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    Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

    A.    Reservations
    B.    Lease times
    C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
    D.    Configuring the DNS options


  • [March 2018] Latest Lead2pass MB6-894 Exam Free MB6-894 Dumps Download 50q

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    You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer working on a new solution, and you need to usea custom icon.

    What should you create to add this icon to the solution?

    A.    a reference to the icon in the project
    B.    an Image folder, and then add the icon
    C.    a tile item in the model
    D.    a resource item in the model

    Answer: D
    Resources enable management of the pictures, icons, and other visual representations for elements thatare used within the user interface.

    A junior programmer asks you to review an order of operator precedence so that a math operation evaluates appropriately.

    Which list is ordered correctly?

    A.    unary, multiplicative, additive, logical, relational
    B.    shift, relational, additive, unary, logical
    C.    unary, multiplicative, additive, relational, logical
    D.    equality, multiplicative, additive, relational, unary

    Answer: C

    You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer who is creatinga new module in a solution. Aspart of the solution, you create a new menu.

    You need the menu to appear in the list of modules available on the navigation pane.

    What should you do to achieve this goal?

    A.    Create an extension of the MainMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
    B.    Create an extension of the NavPaneMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
    C.    Create an extension of the CommonMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
    D.    Create an extension of the StartPageMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.

    Answer: A

    You are developing a solution to insert and update records in a table named Table1, and you need to ensure that you handle the possible exceptions. Table1 does not have any unique indexes that include the ID or the Description fields.

    The table has the following structure:


    What is the output of the X++ code?

    A.    Max value
    Data error
    B.    Break
    C.    Data error_RC
    D.    Max value
    Error has occurred

    Answer: D

    You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer working on a solution that extends the

    Commerce Runtime (CRT) to handle new requests for an app deployed to tablets and cell phones.

    You are in the developer topology and need to troubleshoot an error and check for events.

    Under which event log in Event Viewer should you look to see the events?

    A.    Commerce-RetailServer
    B.    Commerce-OnlineStore
    C.    Commerce-LoggingProvider
    D.    Commerce-ModernPos

    Answer: D
    Commerce-RetailServer?This log contains events that are logged by the Retail Server components.
    Commerce-ModernPos?This log contains events that are logged byRetail Modern POS. These eventsinclude events from the TypeScript and C# (CRT) layer. Commerce-LoggingProvider?This log contains events that are loggedby all other Retail componentsthat aren’t included in the list earlier in this article.

    You have built a package to deploy retail modifications into a source environment for multiple models.

    What is a result of building this package?

    A.    Build artifacts are removed from the previous build.
    B.    The .NET module that contains the element is incorporated.
    C.    Only recently changed objects are rebuilt.
    D.    Only the elements for the current project are built.

    Answer: A
    “Copy and publish build artifacts” uploads the deployable package to VSTS artifacts location.

    You are working for a client in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You design and build acustom package, and upload it to the Asset library in Lifecycle Services (LCS).
    You need to apply the custom package to the client’s Tier 2 environment for testing by generating a runbook.

    Which two files are required to generate the runbook? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    the topology data file
    B.    the development installation service model data file
    C.    the hotfix installation information file
    D.    the service model file

    Answer: AD
    Runbook?The deployment runbook is a series of steps that is generated and used to apply the
    deployable package to the target environment. Some of the steps are automated, and some are manual.
    AXUpdateInstaller enables these steps to be run one at a time and in the correct order. AXUpdateInstaller.exe generate -runbookid=[runbookID] -topologyfile= [topologyFile] -servicemodelfile=[serviceModelFile] -runbook Here is an explanation of the parameters that are used in this command:
    [runbookID]?A parameter that is specified by the developer who applies the deployable package.
    [topologyFile]?The path of the DefaultTopologyData.xml file. [serviceModelFile]?The path of the DefaultServiceModelData.xml file. [runbookFile]?The name of the runbook file to generate (for example, AOSRunbook.xml).

    You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer, and you are reviewing the code in a solution.

    During the code review, you see the following:

    using (var sr = new System.IO.StreamReader(_inputFilename))
    var textFromFile = sr.ReadToEnd();

    Which two statements about the sr and textFromFile variables are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

    A.    The variables storing .Net Framework objects have to be declared using the var keyword.
    B.    The var keyword indicates the variables can store values of any type.
    C.    The variables are valid within the block of code in which they were declared.
    D.    The var keyword infers the type of the variables from their initialization expression.

    Answer: CD

    You need to troubleshoot an issue by using the Async sync library.

    Where should you go to access this library?

    A.    Real Time Service
    B.    Reatil Server
    C.    Retail Modern POS
    D.    Channel Database

    Answer: C
    Retail modern POS includes the Async library which downloads any available data packages and insertsthem into the offline database.

    You have previously written a PurchOrderActivation class with the following logic:

    class PurchOrderActivation
    private static PurchOrderActivation construct()
    return new PurchOrderActivation();


    You need to instantiatePurchOrderActivationfrom a new class named PurchOrderActivationExtended, which extendsPurchOrderActivation.

    What are two possible ways to instantiate thePurchOrderActivationclass in the initialize method of the PurchOrderActivationExtendedclass? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

    A.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
    public void initialize()
    PurchOrderActivation purchOrderActivation =
    B.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
    public void initialize()
    var purchOrderActivation = new PurchOrderActivation(); }
    C.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
    public void initialize()
    var purchOrderActivation = PurchOrderActivation::construct(); }
    D.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
    public void initialize()
    PurchOrderActivation purchOrderActivation = new PurchOrderActivation ();

    Answer: BD

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    You department manger wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month.
    However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
    From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer present a complete solution.

    A.    sub ledger
    B.    customer
    C.    payment schedule
    D.    free text


  • [March 2018] Free Lead2pass Microsoft MB2-716 VCE And PDF Instant Download 105q

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    You create a workflow that automatically sends an email when a condition is met.
    The staff reports that emails are not been sent as expected.
    You need to correct the issue. What should you do?

    A.    Export the workflow.
    B.    Publish the workflow.
    C.    Set the workflow to required.
    D.    Activate the workflow.

    Answer: D

    You are implementing a new business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
    You specify a name and the primary intent for the BPF, and define the stages and conditions.
    You need to configure the composition.
    Which two options can you configure? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

    A.    Dialogs
    B.    Workflows
    C.    Steps
    D.    Actions

    Answer: BC

    You create a business rule for the Account entity.
    The business rule must run when you import account records.
    Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

    A.    The scope was set to Account.
    B.    The scope was set to Entity.
    C.    A business rule snapshot was successful.
    D.    A business rule is active.

    Answer: AD

    You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
    You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process.
    You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
    You need to complete the BPF implementation.
    Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

    A.    Step Required
    B.    Check Conditions
    C.    Wait Conditions
    D.    Step Display Names
    E.    Data Fields

    Answer: ADE

    You have an environment that includes Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Exchange Online.
    Email messages between Microsoft Dynamics and Exchange are synchronizing correctly.
    You need to ensure that appointments, contacts, and tasks are synchronized.
    What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

    A.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use server side synchronization.
    B.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
    C.    Connect Microsoft Dynamics 365 to POP3/SMTP servers.
    D.    Set up the email router.

    Answer: AB

    You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
    You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
    Which privilege should you assign to the security role?

    A.    ISV Extensions
    B.    Execute Workflow Job
    C.    Act on behalf of another user
    D.    Browse Availability

    Answer: A

    You manage Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a company. Some Office 365 users do not have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license.
    You need to ensure that all users can see tasks that are associated with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 opportunity record. What should you implement?

    A.    Microsoft OneNote integration
    B.    Microsoft OneDrive integration
    C.    Microsoft Share Point integration
    D.    Microsoft Office 365 groups

    Answer: D

    You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
    You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
    Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?

    A.    Business Management
    B.    Missing Entities
    C.    Custom Entities
    D.    Customization

    Answer: C

    Users need to be able to embed Microsoft Power Bl visuals into personal dashboards. What should you do?

    A.    Enable server-based integration with Power Bl.
    B.    Add Power Bl as a report category.
    C.    Enable Power Bl visualization embedding.
    D.    Grant users Power Bl reporting permissions.

    Answer: C

    You enable folder-level tracking functionality for all users. A user named User1 creates a folder named Dynamics 365 underneath her in box.
    User1 moves emails into the Dynamics 365 folder. User1 reports that the emails are not being tracked.
    You need to resolve the issue. What should you do?

    A.    Ensure that the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook client is installed.
    B.    Configure server-side synchronization for Microsoft Exchange.
    C.    Ensure that Microsoft Exchange rules are created.
    D.    Instruct the user to create a folder tracking rule.

    Answer: D

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    Click the Exhibit.



    You have deployed the access control configuration to the distribution switch.

    Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?

    A.    All hosts connected to the access switch require authentication to access the network.
    B.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network after one host authenticates.
    C.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network without authentication.
    D.    Only the first host to authenticate will have access to the network, other hosts will be blocked.

    Answer: B

    Click the Exhibit.


    Referring to the exhibit, traffic from User-1 is being forwarded to Server-1 with DSCP values that must be written. You must maintain the rewritten DSCP values throughout the network.

    Which statement is correct in this scenario?

    A.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1.
    B.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1 and R4.
    C.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1, R2, and R3.
    D.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R4.

    Answer: D

    Click the Exhibit.


    You are adding a Junos Fusion satellite device but one cascade port is not coming on line.

    Referring to the exhibit, what would cause this problem?

    A.    The satellite device is not an EX4300.
    B.    The cascade ports need to be on the same line card.
    C.    The FPC number must match the FPC connecting to the satellite device.
    D.    Interface xe-8/2/1 is in a link down state.

    Answer: D

    In Layer 2 environment where 802.1X is deployed with its default parameters on EX Series, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

    A.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from authenticator to the authentication server.
    B.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is denied by default through the authenticator.
    C.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from the supplicant to the authentication server.
    D.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is permitted by default through the authenticator.

    Answer: AB

    Click the Exhibit.


    Your network is experiencing congestion across the link between R2 and R3. You must make changes to alleviate traffic congestion from R3 to R2.

    Referring to the exhibit, which two commands would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

    A.    [edit protocol ospf]
    user@R1# set reference-bandwidth 10g
    B.    [edit protocol ospf]
    user@R3# set reference-bandwidth 10g
    C.    [edit protocols ospf area ]
    user@R1# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5
    D.    [edit protocols ospf area ]
    user@R3# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5

    Answer: BD

    Which two statements are correct about using LLDP on junos devices? (Choose two)

    A.    LLDP operates on layer 2 and layer 3 interfaces
    B.    LLDP can interoperate with the cisco discovery protocol CDP
    C.    LLDP is enabled on all devices by default
    D.    LLDP operates on layer 2 interfaces

    Answer: AC

    You have certainly implemented the configuration shown in the exhibit. After committing these changes, the community devices connected to AS-1 are not able to communicate with the appropriate community devices connected to AS-2.
    What must be done to allow these community devices to communicate?

    A.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID Under the pvlan-200 on the AS2
    B.    switch You must configure the ge-0/0/10 interface on AS1 AS THE VPLAN on both switches
    C.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the VLAN 200 ON both switches
    D.    You must configure the ge-0/012 interface on both switches as P VLAN trunks

    Answer: D

    Which two statements is true regarding the next hop attribute? (Choose two)

    A.    it is not changed when sent across EBGP sessions
    B.    it is changed to self for IBGP routes learned from EBGP
    C.    it is not changed for IGBP routes learned from EBGP
    D.    it is Changed by default when sent across EBGP sessions

    Answer: CD

    Your enterprise network is providing layer 2 connectivity between remote-sites using Q-in- Q tunneling. A customer wants to ensure their connection through your network is also participating in their spanning free topology. In this scenario, which solution must be used?

    A.    you must configure the Q in Q tunnel to use L2PT to tunnel STP packets
    B.    you must configure the same isolation ID on both sides of the tunnel
    C.    you must configure spanning tree on the interfaces connected to the customers sites
    D.    you must configure spanning tree to tunnel packets

    Answer: A

    You want to deploy MSTP with multiple regions. Each region should have a unique root bridge to accommodate a set of VLANs. Which three configuration elements must watch on switches participating in this deployment scenario? (Choose three)

    A.    MSTI toVLAN mapping
    B.    revision level
    C.    CST BPDU parameters
    D.    configuration name
    E.    bridge priority

    Answer: ABD

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    A security analyst is adding input to the incident response communication plan.
    A company officer has suggested that if a data breach occurs, only affected parties should be notified to keep an incident from becoming a media headline.
    Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the company officer?

    A.    The first responder should contact law enforcement upon confirmation of a security incident in order for a forensics team to preserve chain of custody.
    B.    Guidance from laws and regulations should be considered when deciding who must be notified in order to avoid fines and judgements from non-compliance.
    C.    An externally hosted website should be prepared in advance to ensure that when an incident occurs victims have timely access to notifications from a non-compromised recourse.
    D.    The HR department should have information security personnel who are involved in the investigation of the incident sign non-disclosure agreements so the company cannot be held liable for customer data that might be viewed during an investigation. (more…)

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    Which one of the following factors is NOT one on which Authentication is based?

    A.    Type 1 Something you know, such as a PIN or password
    B.    Type 2 Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card
    C.    Type 3 Something you are (based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits), such as a fingerprint or retina scan
    D.    Type 4 Something you are, such as a system administrator or security administrator


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    Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers.
    This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
    Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?

    A.    Traces of proprietary data which can remain on the virtual machine and be exploited
    B.    Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute
    C.    Exposure of proprietary data when in-transit to the cloud provider through IPSec tunnels
    D.    Failure of the de-provisioning mechanism resulting in excessive charges for the resources


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    QUESTION 271
    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

    You administer an Azure subscription for your company. You plan to deploy a virtual machine (VM) to Azure.

    The VM environment must provide 99.95% uptime. A single switch outage must not cause the VM environment to be unavailable VM must be offline due to installation of an update that requires a reboot.

    You need to configure the environment.

    Solution: Create two availability sets. Place a VM in each availability set.

    Does the solution meet the goal?

    A.    Yes
    B.    No (more…)

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    QUESTION 216
    You administer Windows 10 Enterprise computers.

    Users are able to download applications from the Internet and install them on their computers.

    You need to ensure that users can install only digitally signed applications from approved publishers.

    What should you do?

    A.    Create AppLocker Publisher rules.
    B.    Turn on Windows SmartScreen.
    C.    Enable the Check for signatures on downloaded programs option.
    D.    Add publishers’ websites to the Trusted Sites zone.


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    The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning.
    Which of the following processes take place in phase 3?
    Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

    A.    Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
    B.    Document and implement a mitigation plan.
    C.    Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
    D.    Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment. (more…)

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    Which statement about PEST analysis is true?

    A.    Political aspects can be identified easily through surveys.
    B.    Economic and social implications are relevant only with the public sector.
    C.    A PEST analysis allows you to take an independent, outside-in view of factors that impact the customer’s situation.
    D.    A PEST analysis often can be related directly to specific findings from the operating process analysis.


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    Which two main things must you know about stakeholders to identify where they fall in a power grid? (Choose two.)

    A.    role in company
    B.    degree of influence
    C.    size of budget
    D.    purchasing power
    E.    interest in results


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    Which Cisco WebEx Center has program and campaign management?

    A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
    B.    Cisco WebEx Training Center
    C.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
    D.    Cisco WebEx Event Center

    Answer: D

    When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Scripts be saved?

    A.    .js
    B.    .json
    C.    .mp4
    D.    .xml

    Answer: B

    Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?

    A.    Global phone books
    B.    The ability to register desktop phones
    C.    The ability to register video endpoints
    D.    SRST redundancy

    Answer: C

    In a Resilient and Scalable Cisco Meeting Servers solution where should TURN Servers be configured?

    A.    CMS Core
    B.    Telepresence Server
    C.    UCM Server
    D.    CMS Edge

    Answer: A

    Which statement is true regarding endpoint registration authentication?

    A.    When a Subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint is required to have the correct authentications configured.
    B.    Expressways and Endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
    C.    Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
    D.    SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.

    Answer: C

    What protocol is used by TMS when asystem cannot be contacted usingSNMP?

    A.    TIP
    B.    HTTPS
    C.    H.245
    D.    H.239

    Answer: A

    Which statement is true about Microsoft Skype for Business (S4B) interoperability with Cisco Meeting Server?

    A.    Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users.
    B.    Local Directories can always be used between S4B users and CMA.
    C.    Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting Server Spaces.
    D.    Calls can not be place between S4B and Cisco Meeting App (CMA) users.

    Answer: D

    What H.323 functionality exists on the CiscoMeeting Server?

    A.    H.323-to-SIP Interworking only
    B.    H.323 registration, call control and H.323-to-SIP Interworking
    C.    H.323 registration and H.323-to-SIP Interworking, but no call control
    D.    H.323 registration and call control only

    Answer: C

    Which is used in bothCMR Premises and CMR Hybrid solutions?

    A.    Cisco CTS
    B.    Cisco Conductor
    C.    Cisco Meeting Server
    D.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

    Answer: D

    If a userof a SIP endpoint registered to an Expressway configured with only the video.com domain physically dials “6501”, what alias is presented in the SIP Invite message?

    A.    6501
    B.    6501@<ip address of the endpoint>
    C.    6501@<ip address of the Expressway>
    D.    6501@video.com

    Answer: C

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