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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in this network are configured to place all interfaces in OSPF area 5. R3 is the designated router on the 10.1.5.0/24 network. If you examine the OSPF database on R4, what would the network (type 2) LSA, generated by R3, contain? (more…)
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QUESTION 31
A security consultant decides to use multiple layers of anti-virus defense, such as end user desktop anti- virus and E-mail gateway. This approach can be used to mitigate which kind of attack?
A. Forensic attack
B. ARP spoofing attack
C. Social engineering attack
D. Scanning attack
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QUESTION 101
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator previously configured a XenDesktop Site to use evaluation licenses. The administrator has recently installed valid Enterprise licenses on the Citrix License Server and confirmed that licenses show correctly in the licensing console. However, a user reported an issue about logging on to the published desktop. The user received an error message stating that the evaluation license is about to expire.
What should the administrator do to fix this issue?
A. Restart the License service
B. Change the product Edition in Citrix Studio
C. Remove the stale registry entries from License Server
D. Verify the host name entry in the license file
Answer: A
QUESTION 102
A Citrix Administrator wants to use NetScaler Gateway to allow external users to access internal resources securely.
Which three functionalities will the NetScaler Gateway provide to allow access to internal resources on behalf of external users? (Choose three.)
A. Allow secured external connections to StoreFront (reverse Web Proxy)
B. Authenticate Users
C. Enumerate resources
D. Allow secured access to internal hosted applications (HDX Proxy)
E. Aggregate resources
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 103
Which tool can be used to simulate multiple sessions of auto-creating printers using the same non-native printers?
A. Windows Performance Kit
B. Print Detective
C. Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification
D. StressPrinters
Answer: D
QUESTION 104
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to secure XML traffic to an existing XenDesktop environment. The Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) is NOT installed on the Delivery Controller with the IP address 10.110.4.10.
The organization mandates that a public certificate authority (CA) server should be used for securing all communication traffic.
After successfully testing the changes, the administrator will make the necessary changes within StoreFront.
Which two steps should the administrator take to make the necessary changes? (Choose two.)
A. Run the PowerShell command: BrokerService -WiSsIPort 443
B. Change the registry value of XmlServicesSsIPort HKLM\SOFTWARE\Citrix\DesktopServer to 443
C. Create a Domain Certificate
D. Create a certificate Requesr
E. Run the command: netsh http add sslcert ipport=10.110.4.10:443
Answer: A
QUESTION 105
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is investigating an instability in the system that is causing the Print Spooler service to stop frequently on the XenApp server. The administrator finds printer driver conflicts in the environment.
Which policy can the administrator use to resolve this issue and remove the unwanted printer drivers on the XenApp server?
A. Use only printer model specific drivers
B. Automatic Installation of in-box printer drivers
C. Auto-connect all client printers
D. Use universal printing only if requested driver is unavailable
Answer: D
QUESTION 106
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator will use PowerShell to configure a new restart schedule for the Windows 2016 Server OS group named “Win2016-ServerOS” within the company’s XenDesktop infrastructure.
The administrator needs the machines in the Server OS group to restart at a time when NO users will be accessing them: beginning at 23:00 h (11 PM) each day, with 30-minute intervals between each machine restart.
Which PowerShell command should the administrator use?
A. Set-BrokerRebootScheduleV2 Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS Frequency Daily StartTime “11:00” Enabled $true RebootDuration
B. Set-BrokerRebootSchedule Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS Frequency Daily StartTime “23:00” Enabled $true RebootDuration
C. New-BrokerRebootSchedule Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot-DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS Frequency Daily StartTime “11:00” Enabled $true RebootDuration
D. New-BrokerRebootScheduleV2 Name XYZ-ServerOS-DailyReboot- DesktopGroupName Win2016-ServerOS Frequency Daily StartTime “23:00” Enabled $true RebootDuration 30
Answer: A
QUESTION 107
A Citrix Administrator needs to review the Delivery Group historical data from the last 200 days. Which tool allows the administrator to view this data?
A. Citrix Studio – Delivery Groups
B. Citrix Director – Dashboard
C. Citrix Studio – Applications
D. Citrix Director – Trends
Answer: D
QUESTION 108
Which Layer contains the Citrix Director in a XenApp and XenDesktop Architecture model?
A. Resource
B. User
C. Control
D. Access
Answer: C
QUESTION 109
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy Receiver to a group of new users who use restricted workstations that do NOT allow applications to be installed locally on them. These users are internal to the company and connect directly to the XenDesktop environment via Storefront.
Which deployment option is optimal for these new users?
A. Receiver for Web deployed from StoreFront
B. Native Receiver deployed through Active Directory scripting
C. Receiver for HTML5 deployed through client web browser
D. Native Receiver deployed through group policy
Answer: A
QUESTION 110
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has been receiving calls from users stating that they are receiving new sessions instead of reconnecting to their disconnected sessions. The administrator investigated the issue and found the sessions are in a disconnected state when the users leave work.
What should the administrator configure inStoreFront to allow the users to reconnect to their disconnected sessions while roaming?
A. Session Lingering
B. Session Pre-Launch
C. Workspace Control
D. Session Timeout
Answer: A
QUESTION 111
An organization needs fewer printers created during session startup, so that sessions start faster. Which policy allows the Citrix Administrator to achieve this goal?
A. Client Printer Redirection
B. Direct Connections to Print Servers
C. Printer Properties Retention
D. Auto-Create Client Printers
Answer: D
QUESTION 112
A Citrix Administrator needs to join a XenDesktop Controller to an existing site that is configured to use a mirrored SQL server database.
Using Citrix Studio, which two methods can the administrator choose to meet this requirement? (Choose two.)
A. Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database manually”; generate scripts and run them in Administrative Power Shell Window on SQL Server
B. Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database manually”; generate scripts and run them on SQL Server Management Studio in SQLCMD mode
C. Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database automatically”; mirroring is detected without user intervention
D. Run the Join Existing Wizard, select “Update the database automatically”; mirroring can be configured later on
Answer: BC
QUESTION 113
Which two cloud providers are supported with XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Web Services
B. Google Cloud Services
C. Microsoft Azure
D. IBM Cloud
Answer: AC
QUESTION 114
Which tool can a Citrix Administrator use to collect information to investigate issues with session performance?
A. XDPing
B. CDF Control
C. XenDesktop Site Checker
D. HDX Monitor
Answer: C
QUESTION 115
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator implemented XenApp/XenDesktop to centrally host applications for internal and external users.
Recently, the SQL servers hosting the Site database experienced a major problem. As a result, the database is corrupted and the administrator needs to restore the Site database from backup.
Which precautionary action must the administrator consider before restoring the Site database?
A. Nullify the connection strings from the registry using PowerShell so that the controllers do NOT connect to the database
B. Remove any hotfixes applied after the backup before performing the restore
C. Verify that all Delivery Controllers are shut down
D. Verify that the restore option in SQL Studio is set to ITH RESTRICTED_USER?
Answer: B
QUESTION 116
Which piece of License Server information does a Citrix Administrator need in order to allocate and download the XenDesktop license file from mycitrix.com?
A. IP Address
B. MAC Address
C. Hostname
D. FQDN
Answer: B
QUESTION 117
Which printer tool helps enumerate all printer drivers from a specified Windows machine, including driver- specific information, and allows deletion of unwanted drivers?
A. Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification
B. Windows Performance Kit
C. StressPrinters
D. Print Detective
Answer: D
QUESTION 118
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to configure StoreFront to allow external users to access internal resources. The external users will authenticate on StoreFront.
Which Storefront Authentication method will the administrator configure?
A. HTTP Basic
B. Username and password
C. Smart Card
D. Pass-through from NetScaler Gateway
Answer: D
QUESTION 119
What is the order of precedence, from highest to lowest, for the different policy types that can be used to configure Citrix policies?
A. Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO, Local Computer
B. Local Computer, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Site GPO, Domain GPO, Organizational Unit GPO
C. Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), local Computer
D. Local Computer, Site local (created in Citrix Studio), Organizational Unit GPO, Domain GPO, Site GPO
Answer: C
QUESTION 120
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is working on a published application. The network connection remains for 240 seconds but is interrupted, and applications become unusable. The session then prompts for authentication. After the administrator successfully authenticates, the session is reconnected.
Which policy makes this possible?
A. Load Management
B. Auto Client Reconnect
C. ICA Keep Alive
D. Session Reliability
Answer: D
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QUESTION 61
Which of the following reports are delivered under oath to a board of directors/managers/panel of jury?
A. Written informal Report
B. Verbal Formal Report
C. Written Formal Report
D. Verbal Informal Report
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QUESTION 21
You have just added a new MSE to Prime Infrastructure and want to synchronize the MSE with your 5508 WLC. which is located behind a firewall in a DMZ.
You notice that NMSP messages are failing between the two devices.
What traffic needs to be allowed on the Firewall to ensure the MSE and WLC can communicate using NMSP?
A. UDP 16113
B. TCP 1613
C. TCP 16113
D. UDP 1613 (more…)
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QUESTION 86
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy 300 Virtual Windows 10 Desktops in an environment in which there is minimal interference with existing network infrastructure. There is also a need for user- installed applications and persistency.
Which Citrix technology will the administrator use to provision the desktops?
A. Machine Creation Services
B. Provisioning Services
C. Manual Provisioning
D. Existing Machines (more…)
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QUESTION 21
An engineer is assigned to provide wireless coverage in a provincial capital building. Due to the age and historic nature of the building, the ability to run new copper Ethernet cable to desired AP locations is limited. Which requirement should the engineer specify to overcome this restriction?
A. Deploy access points where the survey indicates and connect them via fiber optic cable, using a mediaadapter, and locally provide power.
B. Deploy access points to each phone location converting two spare pairs of copper from the phone line toEthernet and locally provide power.
C. Deploy access point devices where limited cable can be run or exists and connect high-gain antennas andincrease Tx power to increase cell size.
D. Deploy RAP where limited cable can be run or exists, and extend coverage using MAP.
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QUESTION 21
Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?
A. OTV
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VDC
Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?
A. OTV
B. VSS
C. vPC
D. VLAN
Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?
A. connect to other data centers
B. connect to the access layer
C. connect to the end users
D. connect to mobile devices
Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html
“Edge Device
The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
[…]
Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. ”
QUESTION 24
Which QoS architecture provides scalability of implementation?
A. IntServ
B. DiffServ
C. LLQ
D. RSVP
Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications?
A. IntServ
B. DiffServ
C. LLQ
D. ToS
E. DSCP
Answer: A
Explanation:
DiffServ is known as “Hop-by-Hop” and not “End-to-End”
QUESTION 26
CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?
A. MPLS
B. IEEE 802.1W
C. IEEE 802.1Q
D. IEEE 802.1S
Answer: C
QUESTION 27
Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?
A. UDP, because it is connectionless
B. SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
C. Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
D. MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol
Answer: B
QUESTION 28
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?
A. It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B. Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D. SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.
Answer: B
QUESTION 29
The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?
A. PIM
B. IGMP
C. underlying IGP
D. MSDP
Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr.html
“Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”
QUESTION 30
Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?
A. Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
B. Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
C. Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
D. Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.
Answer: C
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QUESTION 41
Which version of AsyncOS for web is required to deploy the Web Security Appliance as a CWS connector?
A. AsyncOS version 7.7.x
B. AsyncOS version 7.5.x
C. AsyncOS version 7.5.7
D. AsyncOS version 7.5.0
Answer: C
QUESTION 42
What are three benefits of the Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Solution? (Choose three.)
A. It can protect against command-injection and directory-traversal attacks.
B. It provides Internet transport while maintaining corporate security policies.
C. It provides secure remote access to managed computers.
D. It provides clientless remote access to multiple network-based systems.
E. It enforces security policies, regardless of the user location.
F. It uses ACLs to determine best-route connections for clients in a secure environment.
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 43
Which Cisco technology secures the network through malware filtering, category-based control, and reputation-based control?
A. Cisco ASA 5500 Series appliances
B. Cisco remote-access VPNs
C. Cisco IronPort WSA
D. Cisco IPS
Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Which antispam technology assumes that email from server A, which has a history of distributing spam, is more likely to be spam than email from server B, which does not have a history of distributing spam?
A. Reputation-based filtering
B. Context-based filtering
C. Cisco ESA multilayer approach
D. Policy-based filtering
Answer: A
QUESTION 45
Which Cisco technology is a modular security service that combines a stateful inspection firewall with next-generation application awareness, providing near real-time threat protection?
A. Cisco ASA 5500 series appliances
B. Cisco ASA CX Context-Aware Security
C. WSA
D. Internet Edge Firewall / IPS
Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which three statements about Cisco ASA CX are true? (Choose three.)
A. It groups multiple ASAs as a single logical device.
B. It can perform context-aware inspection.
C. It provides high-density security services with high availability.
D. It uses policy-based interface controls to inspect and forward TCP- and UDP-based packets.
E. It can make context-aware decisions.
F. It uses four cooperative architectural constructs to build the firewall.
Answer: BEF
QUESTION 47
During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
A. cxsc fail
B. cxsc fail-close
C. cxsc fail-open
D. cxssp fail-close
Answer: B
QUESTION 48
Cisco AVC allows control of which three of the following? (Choose three.)
A. Facebook
B. LWAPP
C. IPv6
D. MySpace
E. Twitter
F. WCCP
Answer: ADE
QUESTION 49
The Web Security Appliance has identities defined for faculty and staff, students, and default access. The faculty and staff identity identifies users based on the source network and authenticated credentials. The identity for students identifies users based on the source network along with successful authentication credentials. The global identity is for guest users not authenticated against the domain.
Recently, a change was made to the organization’s security policy to allow faculty and staff access to a social network website, and the security group changed the access policy for faculty and staff to allow the social networking category.
Which are the two most likely reasons that the category is still being blocked for a faculty and staff user? (Choose two.)
A. The user is being matched against the student policy because the user did not enter credentials.
B. The user is using an unsupported browser so the credentials are not working.
C. The social networking URL was entered into a custom URL category that is blocked in the access policy.
D. The user is connected to the wrong network and is being blocked by the student policy.
E. The social networking category is being allowed but the AVC policy is still blocking the website.
Answer: CE
QUESTION 50
Which five system management protocols are supported by the Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose five.)
A. SNMPv2c
B. SNMPv1
C. SNMPv2
D. SNMPv3
E. syslog
F. SDEE
G. SMTP
Answer: ABCFG
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QUESTION 21
Which statement is true when implementing a router with a dynamic public IP address in a crypto map based site-to-site VPN?
A. The router must be configured with a dynamic crypto map.
B. Certificates are always used for phase 1 authentication.
C. The tunnel establishment will fail if the router is configured as a responder only.
D. The router and the peer router must have NAT traversal enabled.
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QUESTION 21
Which two EAP types require server side certificates? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-PEAP
C. EAP-MD5
D. LEAP
E. EAP-FAST
F. MSCHAPv2
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QUESTION 21
Which technology provides forwarding-plane abstraction to support Layer 2 to Layer 7 network services in Cisco Nexus 1000V?
A. Virtual Service Node
B. Virtual Service Gateway
C. Virtual Service Data Path
D. Virtual Service Agent
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QUESTION 71
In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)
A. backup
B. grid
C. redund
D. n-plus-1
E. non-redund
F. plus-1 (more…)
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QUESTION 21
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112 (more…)
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QUESTION 21
The following commands are issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
Router(configuration)#exit
Router#debug ip packet 199
What will the debug output on the console show?
A. All IP packets passing through the router
B. Only IP packets with the source address of 10.1.1.1
C. All IP packets from 10.1.1.1 to 172.16.1.1
D. All IP Packets between 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1 (more…)
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QUESTION 21
Pilot testing of the new switching infrastructure finds that when the root port is lost, STP immediately replaces the root port with an alternative root port. Which spanning-tree technology is used to accomplish backup root port selection?
A. PVST+
B. PortFast
C. BackboneFast
D. UplinkFast
E. Loop Guard
F. UDLD
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QUESTION 21
You have configured a Cisco Unity Express server that uses the G.711 codec. You want to send outbound messages in a format that uses lower bandwidth. However, you want to keep the quality of the incoming message high. Which two tasks should you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Convert the incoming messages to G.729a.
B. Keep the incoming messages as G.711.
C. Convert the outgoing message to 64 kb/s using G.729a.
D. Convert the outgoing messages to G.726.
E. Send the outgoing messages in the G.711 format.
F. Store the message using the original codec, but convert it to 64 kb/s for outgoing.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 22
Which email integration will allow a Lotus Notes client to retrieve emails from Cisco Unity Express?
A. MIME
B. SMTP
C. JTAPI
D. CTIQBE
E. IMAP
F. Cisco Unity Express email infrastructure
Answer: E
QUESTION 23
What is the maximum number of custom auto-attendant applications that you can set up in Cisco Unity Express?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
Answer: D
QUESTION 24
Which two parameters are required when you configure the Voice Profile for Internet Mail location on Cisco Unity Express? (Choose two.)
A. domain name or IP address
B. destination type
C. display name
D. location ID
E. dial ID
F. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol domain name
Answer: AD
QUESTION 25
What is the maximum number of users that can be imported into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express at one time?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 500
D. 50
Answer: A
QUESTION 26
A user has reported that keys pressed when accessing Cisco Unity Express are not being acknowledged by the system. This configuration is found on the voice-enabled IOS router:
dial-peer voice 6800 voip
destination-pattern 5…
session protocol sipv2
session target ipv4:10.3.6.127
codec g711ulaw
no vad
Which configuration command is needed to complete the configuration and solve the problem?
A. dtmf-relay sip-notify
B. dtmf-relay rtp-nte
C. dtmf-relay cisco-rtp
D. dtmf-relay h245-signal
Answer: A
QUESTION 27
An end user is complaining that when they try to retrieve their voicemail messages, they hear the message “mailbox is currently in use.” What must the administrator do to resolve this issue?
A. The administrator must reload the mailbox for the user.
B. The administrator must verify that the mailbox is enabled.
C. The administrator must verify that the primary extension that is associated with the end user is in an E.164 format.
D. The administrator must unlock the mailbox for the user.
Answer: D
QUESTION 28
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B. Associate the end device with the user.
C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D. Associate the directory number with the user.
E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 29
What are four capabilities of Cisco Unified Presence user communication? (Choose four.)
A. video conferencing
B. web collaboration
C. instant messaging
D. basic audio
E. advanced audio/web hosting
F. automatic LAN configuration
G. whiteboarding
Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 30
From which entity does a Cisco Unified Personal Communicator device receive its TFTP server address when it is integrated with a Cisco Unified Presence Server for failover?
A. Cisco Unified Presence server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
C. Device profile in Cisco Unified Communication Manager
D. Manually created upon installation of Cisco Unified Personal Communicator
E. Cisco Unified Personal Communicator does not use TFTP.
Answer: A
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QUESTION 21
Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls.
C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls.
D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling.
E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client. (more…)
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QUESTION 21
Which discard digits instruction removes all digits prior to the North American Numbering Plan portion of the route pattern?
A. PreDot
B. PreAt
C. Pre
D. PreNANP (more…)
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QUESTION 409
Engineers are preparing to move guests to new compute and storage infrastructure. Basic network and SAN connectivity have been established. Which of the following options are valid NEXT steps to prepare for guest migration to the new infrastructure? (Select two.)
A. Tag the live migration VLAN on the trunk to the new servers
B. Correctly size and provision NFS LUNs on the new storage
C. Zone HBAs
D. Prep mirror VMs on new hosts for data migration
E. Tag the SAN trunks with the correct guest network VLANs
Answer: AD
QUESTION 410
An administrator is implementing a private cloud that will be used as a test environment. To limit the number of guests per subnet to a maximum of 14, the administrator implemented a /20 network. Which of the following should the administrator use to assign the networks?
A. DHCP
B. Subnet
C. VLAN
D. Gateway
Answer: A
QUESTION 411
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has summoned an administrator due to the datacenter power bill being significantly higher than normal. The administrator explains that a new array was installed for a 20TB CRM application. Which of the following solutions would provide a new performance benefit and also reduce power consumption?
A. SSD
B. SAS
C. SATA
D. FC
Answer: A
QUESTION 412
Cloud bursting can alleviate which of the following attacks?
A. Buffer Overflow
B. Brute Force
C. XSS
D. DDOS
Answer: D
QUESTION 413
An administrator is testing a new web server from outside of the corporate firewall. The administrator performs a test from a single PC and the web server responds accordingly. The administrator then provisions several virtual machines on a network behind NAT and uses them to perform the same operation on the web server at the same time, but thereafter soon discovers that none of the machines can reach the web server. Which of the following could be responsible?
A. IPS
B. Blacklisting
C. IDS
D. Whitelisting
E. Firewall
Answer: E
QUESTION 414
Which of the following would a company implement to provide authentication to multiple websites that are delivered through PaaS?
A. Federation services
B. MAC
C. Multi-factor authentication
D. RBAC
Answer: D
QUESTION 415
An administrator is responsible for managing a host that is part of a private cloud. The host has one physical quad core CPU. The administrator is tasked with creating a new guest that requires a single CPU. Which of the following actions should the administrator do?
A. Assign 1 virtual CPU to the Guest
B. Assign 1 virtual CPU to the Host
C. Assign 1 physical CPU to the Guest
D. Assign 1 physical CPU to the Host
Answer: A
QUESTION 416
Which of the following storage technologies is IP-based?
A. SCSI
B. DAS
C. FCP
D. NAS
Answer: D
QUESTION 417
An administrator has created a new virtual server according to specifications and verified that TCP/IP settings are correct. When the VM is powered on, however, an error message indicates that a network card MAC address conflict exists. Which of the following would resolve this issue?
A. Remove the virtual NIC and configure another one.
B. Add an additional NIC with a loopback interface.
C. Ping the IP address to determine the location of the conflict.
D. Change the MAC to ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff and obtain a new address.
Answer: A
QUESTION 418
An administrator is no longer receiving alerting messages from the web server platform that recently failed over to a new secondary datacenter due to a power failure. Which of the following is the cause of the problem?
A. Port 21 in only allowed inbound at the primary datacenter
B. Port 22 to the log server is blocked outbound
C. Port 162 in DMZ is blocked inbound
D. Port 162 in DMZ is blocked outbound
Answer: C
QUESTION 419
An organization wants to create a server VM that is segregated from the rest of the servers. Which of the following should the server administrator configure?
A. Virtual NIC
B. Trunk port
C. Virtual memory
D. VPN connection
Answer: A
QUESTION 420
Which of the following ensures that there is enough space for vendors to install their programs and run the software they will be managing for various SaaS products?
A. Network isolation
B. Laws and regulations
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Data segregation
Answer: C
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