300-320 Dumps

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QUESTION 21
Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?

A.    OTV
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    VDC

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?

A.    OTV
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    VLAN

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?

A.    connect to other data centers
B.    connect to the access layer
C.    connect to the end users
D.    connect to mobile devices

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html
“Edge Device
The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.
[…]
Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. ”

QUESTION 24
Which QoS architecture provides scalability of implementation?

A.    IntServ
B.    DiffServ
C.    LLQ
D.    RSVP

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business applications?

A.    IntServ
B.    DiffServ
C.    LLQ
D.    ToS
E.    DSCP

Answer: A
Explanation:
DiffServ is known as “Hop-by-Hop” and not “End-to-End”

QUESTION 26
CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

A.    MPLS
B.    IEEE 802.1W
C.    IEEE 802.1Q
D.    IEEE 802.1S

Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which protocol is used in an in-band network and why?

A.    UDP, because it is connectionless
B.    SSH, because the username and password are encrypted
C.    Telnet, because the username and password are sent in clear
D.    MSDP, because it uses TCP as its transport protocol

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is an advantage of having an out-of-band management?

A.    It is less expensive to have an out-of-band management.
B.    Network devices can still be managed, even in case of network outage.
C.    There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
D.    SSH protocol must be used to manage network devices.

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
The direction of the flow of multicast traffic is based on which protocol?

A.    PIM
B.    IGMP
C.    underlying IGP
D.    MSDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/mcst_ovr.html
“Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) PIM uses the unicast routing information to create a distribution tree along the reverse path from the receivers towards the source. The multicast routers then forward packets along the distribution tree from the source to the receivers. RPF is a key concept in multicast forwarding. It enables routers to correctly forward multicast traffic down the distribution tree. RPF makes use of the existing unicast routing table to determine the upstream and downstream neighbors. A router will forward a multicast packet only if it is received on the upstream interface. This RPF check helps to guarantee that the distribution tree will be loopfree.”

QUESTION 30
Which option can be implemented to manipulate the election of PIM DR to force multicast traffic to a certain path?

A.    Assign a lower PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
B.    Assign a lower IP address to the PIM DR interface.
C.    Assign a higher PIM DR priority to the PIM DR interface.
D.    Increase the cost on the PIM DR interface.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit?

A.    Cisco Express Forwarding
B.    IP SLA
C.    passive interface
D.    traffic shaping

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario?

A.    VRRP
B.    BGP
C.    IPsec
D.    SSL

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?

A.    ATM
B.    ISP MPLS VPN
C.    VTI
D.    VPLS

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into “legal” public addresses on a one-for-one basis?

A.    PAT
B.    NAT
C.    VLAN
D.    GARP
E.    PPP

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which technology fulfills these requirements?

– Utilize a connection that must support a range of traffic, voice, video, and data.
– This traffic must also support transmission via a fixed blank 53-byte cell.

A.    PPP
B.    Frame Relay
C.    ATM
D.    MPLS
E.    X.25

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which option is used as a top-of-rack device that is managed by its parent device, providing ease of management?

A.    Cisco Nexus 2000
B.    Cisco Nexus 5000
C.    Cisco Nexus 7000
D.    Cisco Nexus 9000

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which option provides software modularity in Cisco NX-OS software in the data center design?

A.    The ip routing command enables all of the features in the Cisco NX-OS.
B.    All of the features are enabled by default in the Cisco NX-OS.
C.    Individual features must be manually enabled to start the process.
D.    The Cisco NX-OS has a management VRF that is enabled by default.

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What is an advantage of using the vPC feature in a data center environment?

A.    VSS is a requirement.
B.    Multiple instances of control plane are formed.
C.    The control plane and management plane remain separate.
D.    Cisco FabricPath technology does not have to be configured.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option is a benefit of the vPC+ feature?

A.    Cisco FabricPath is not required in the network domain.
B.    This feature provides fault domain separation.
C.    Nonfabric devices, such as a server or a classic Ethernet switch, can be connected to two fabric switches that are configured with vPC.
D.    The control plane and management plane are combined into one logical plane.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure. Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose?

A.    ISSU
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    MEC

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?

A.    30
B.    10
C.    50
D.    100

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QUESTION 351
When designing data centers for multitenancy, which two benefits are provided by the implementation of VSAN and zoning? (choose two)

A.    VSAN provides a means of restricting visibility and connectivity among devices connected to a zone
B.    VSANs have their own set of services and address space, which prevents an issue in one VSAN from affecting others
C.    Zones provide the ability to create many logical SAN fabrics on a single Cisco MDS 9100 family switch
D.    VSANs and zones use separate fabrics
E.    Zones allow an administrator to control which initiators can see which targets

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QUESTION 326
Which OSPF concept is used to relate areas to the backbone area through another area?

A.    Virtual Links
B.    Backup Links
C.    Inter-backbone Links
D.     Point-to-point Links

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QUESTION 301
Which statement about vPC technology is true?

A.    It allows a device to connect to two separate upstream devices as if they were a single device.
B.    It provides the ability to pair two servers in the data center.
C.    It promotes better STP designs in the switching infrastructure.
D.    It supports IEEE 802.1Q only.

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QUESTION 276
What are three primary components in IS-IS fast convergence? (Choose three.)

A.    event propagation
B.    LSP flooding
C.    fast hellos
D.    matching MTUs
E.    updating RIB and FIB
F.    SPF calculation

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QUESTION 251
Which two of these are recommended practices with trunks? (Choose two.)

A.    use ISL encapsulation
B.    use 802.1q encapsulation
C.    set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D.    use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network
E.    set DTP to desirable and desirable with encapsulation negotiate to support DTP protocol negotiation.

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QUESTION 226
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)

A.    only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B.    only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C.    only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D.    only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E.    the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F.    the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses

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QUESTION 201
Drag and Drop Question

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QUESTION 176
AutoQoS is used to implement VoIP in the enterprise, but the trust option is not configured on the interface. Which network management Cisco IOS capability classifies the voice traffic?

A.    NetFlow
B.    SNMP
C.    IP SLAs
D.    NBAR

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QUESTION 151
What feature is a benefit of using Cisco UCS blade servers for data center virtualization?

A.    guest VM high availability
B.    converged LAN and SAN infrastructure
C.    host based etherchannel
D.    built-in hypervisor

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QUESTION 126
Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?

A.    addressing designs need to allow for summarization
B.    termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
C.    IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D.    designs should not include overlapping address spaces between sites, since NAT is not supported

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QUESTION 101
Which two key components are related to one firewall per ISP design option for e-commerce? (Choose two.)

A.    It is a common approach to single-homing.
B.    This approach is commonly used in large sites.
C.    Any failure on an edge router results in a loss of session.
D.    It has one NAT to two ISP-assigned blocks.
E.    It is difficult to set up and administer.

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QUESTION 76
Which two ways to manage scalability issues inside an IBGP domain with 20 or more routers are recommended? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure route reflectors.
B.    Use OSPF instead of EIGRP as an underlying routing protocol.
C.    Create a full mesh at Layer 1.
D.    Configure confederations.
E.    Configure static routes between all routers.

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QUESTION 51
Which multicast address must be available for FHRP advertisements in a multivendor environment?

A.    224.0.0.9
B.    224.0.0.18
C.    224.0.0.102
D.    224.0.0.2

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QUESTION 26
CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

A.    MPLS
B.    IEEE 802.1W
C.    IEEE 802.1Q
D.    IEEE 802.1S

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QUESTION 1
What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?

A.    30
B.    10
C.    50
D.    100

(more…)

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QUESTION 347
Transition to Named EIGRP without causing an outage?

A.    router eigrp NAME
B.    router eigrp 1 named NAME
C.    router eigrp 1
eigrp upgrade-cli NAME
D.    interface fa0/1
ip router eigrp 1 named NAME

(more…)