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  • [May 2018] Lead2pass 300-115 Exam Questions Guarantee 300-115 Certification Exam 100% Success 684q

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    Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?

    A.    switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
    B.    switch# show spanning-tree bridge
    C.    switch# show spanning-tree brief
    D.    switch# show spanning-tree summary
    E.    switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10 brief (more…)

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    Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?

    A.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed.
    Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
    B.    PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed.
    Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
    C.    PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed.
    Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
    D.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed.
    Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

    Answer: D

    Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?

    A.    discover messages
    B.    DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
    C.    traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
    D.    DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match

    Answer: B

    Refer to the exhibit. Which command only announces the network out of FastEthernet 0/0?


    A.    distribute list 1 out
    B.    distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
    C.    distribute list 2 out
    D.    distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0

    Answer: D
    Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only, whereas access list 1 permits all networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

    Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit ge 24 le 24?


    Answer: B
    With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to 24 and less than or equal to 24. This translates to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
    Only the choice of matches this.

    Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output.
    Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?

    A.    OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
    B.    The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
    C.    An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
    D.    IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.

    Answer: D

    After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address.
    Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?

    A.    IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
    B.    The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
    C.    IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
    D.    The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
    E.    IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.

    Answer: A
    Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identify them EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address.

    A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?

    A.    Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
    B.    Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
    C.    Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
    D.    All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.

    Answer: B
    Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified Ipv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message. RA messages typically include the following information:
    One or more onlink Ipv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure their Ipv6 addresses
    Lifetime information for each prefix included in the advertisement
    Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be completed
    Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default router)
    Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that it originates

    A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the user to open a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions.
    After doing this, the user is able to access company shares.
    Which type of remote access did the engineer enable?

    A.    EZVPN
    B.    IPsec VPN client access
    C.    VPDN client access
    D.    SSL VPN client access

    Answer: D
    The Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client provides secure SSL connections to the security appliance for remote users. Without a previously installed client, remote users enter the IP address in their browser of an interface configured to accept SSL VPN connections. Unless the security appliance is configured to redirect http:// requests to https://, users must enter the URL in the form https://<address>.
    After entering the URL, the browser connects to that interface and displays the login screen. If the user satisfies the login and authentication, and the security appliance identifies the user as requiring the client, it downloads the client that matches the operating system of the remote computer. After downloading, the client installs and configures itself, establishes a secure SSL connection and either remains or uninstalls itself (depending on the security appliance configuration) when the connection terminates.

    Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express Forwarding?

    A.    FlexVPN
    B.    DMVPN
    C.    GETVPN
    D.    Cisco Easy VPN

    Answer: B
    Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual private network (VPN) supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP and Ipsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for creating a dynamic-mesh VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel end-point peers, including Ipsec (Internet Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially configured to build out a hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes. Using this initial hub- and-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh) without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates the need for any load on the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
    DMVPN is combination of the following technologies:

    A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during maintenance windows, as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the network respond accordingly. Which action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?

    A.    Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during maintenance.
    B.    Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
    C.    Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
    D.    Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.

    Answer: A
    The standby track command allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group. If the line protocol of the specified interface goes down, the HSRP priority is reduced. This means that another HSRP router with higher priority can become the active router if that router has standby preempt enabled. Loopback interfaces can be tracked, so when this interface is shut down the HSRP priority for that router will be lowered and the other HSRP router will then become the active one.

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    Cisco Unified Communications Manager is configured with CAC for a maximum of 10 voice calls.
    Which action routes the 11th call through the PSTN?

    A.    Configure an SIP trunk to the ISR.
    B.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager AAR.
    C.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager RSVP-enabled locations.
    D.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations. (more…)

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    Which type of IOS Conference bridge requires all users to use the same video format in order to participate in a video conference?

    A.    Ad Hoc Conferencing
    B.    Homogenous Conferencing
    C.    Heterogenous Conferencing
    D.    Guaranteed Audio Video Conferencing
    E.    Meet-Me Conferencing

    Answer: B

    Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogenous conferencing to achieve the required trans- sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)

    A.    PVDM3-256
    B.    PVDM2-256
    C.    PVDM-192
    D.    PVDM3-32
    E.    PVDM3-192
    F.    PVDM2-128

    Answer: AE

    Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?

    A.    Cisco Telepresence Server
    B.    Cisco Telepresence MCU
    C.    Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
    D.    Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
    E.    Cisco Telepresence Conductor

    Answer: E

    What is the maximum number of 1080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?

    A.    48
    B.    180
    C.    720
    D.    800

    Answer: A

    Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?

    A.    $
    B.    !
    C.    #
    D.    .

    Answer: C

    When a call is attempted during a particular time of day, what determines the partitions where calling devices search?

    A.    time schedules
    B.    calling periods
    C.    dial schedules
    D.    time periods

    Answer: A

    When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?

    A.    call classification
    B.    call location
    C.    device pool
    D.    signaling port

    Answer: A

    When local route groups are used and a user dials 918005551212, what component is ultimately used to route the digits to the local gateway?

    A.    The route list applied to the route pattern
    B.    The device pool of the calling device
    C.    The translation pattern
    D.    The gateway or route list associated with the +.! route pattern

    Answer: B

    You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls.
    What should you use?

    A.    calling extension expansion
    B.    called number expansion
    C.    external number mask of the called party
    D.    external phone number mask of the calling party

    Answer: D

    The CSS on a line includes the partitions 911, internal and local. The CSS on the device includes the partitions 911, internal, local and long distance. Which CSS will be used if the phone user dials a local number?

    A.    The device CSS will be used since the device CSS is always used first on an IP phone.
    B.    Since the dialed digits are a match to a partition is in both Calling Search Spaces the call will use both matched partitions in both Calling Search Spaces in a round-robin format.
    C.    If there is both a line and device CSS the line device will only be used.
    D.    The line and device CSSs will be combined and the device CSS will take precedence.
    E.    The line and device CSSs will be combined and the line CSS will take precedence.

    Answer: E

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    A clientless SSL VPN user who is connecting on a Windows Vista computer is missing the menu option for Remote Desktop Protocol on the portal web page.
    Which action should you take to begin troubleshooting?

    A.    Ensure that the RDP2 plug-in is installed on the VPN gateway
    B.    Reboot the VPN gateway
    C.    Instruct the user to reconnect to the VPN gateway
    D.    Ensure that the RDP plug-in is installed on the VPN gateway


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    Which CLI command can be used to reset the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 personal video system to a factory condition?

    A.    utils factory reset 2
    B.    utils system factory init
    C.    xcommand defaultvalues set level: 2
    D.    xconfiguration default factory
    E.    utils reset factory
    F.    xcommand SystemUnit FactoryReset

    Answer: B

    The C-Series endpoint (codec) does not register with the Video Communication Server that is located in a different network. Based on the exhibits, what could be causing the issue?





    A.    The subnet mask on the codec is incorrect.
    B.    The ip address of the codec is incorrect.
    C.    The interface that the codec is in is in the wrong VLAN.
    D.    The codec did not receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server.

    Answer: A
    The subnet mask configured on the codec is, when it should be

    Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)

    A.    automatic software update and release keys
    B.    intelligent call routing engine
    C.    provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
    D.    tracing SIP and H.323 calls
    E.    managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
    F.    rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications

    Answer: ABF

    Refer to the exhibit. Which system tab can be used to add video infrastructure devices and endpoints?


    A.    Navigator
    B.    System Overview
    C.    Configuration Templates
    D.    Provisioning
    E.    Administrative Tools

    Answer: A

    Which two layout or switching modes are supported with the Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch? (Choose two.)

    A.    enhanced continuous presence
    B.    active speaker switching
    C.    continuous presence
    D.    speaker switching
    E.    room switching
    F.    active continuous presence

    Answer: DE

    Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?

    A.    enhanced continuous presence
    B.    active speaker
    C.    continuous presence
    D.    room switching
    E.    speaker switching

    Answer: A

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    An end user is unable to sign into Jabber.
    Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.)

    A.    Jabber Advanced Settings
    B.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
    C.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
    D.    Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
    E.    Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
    F.    Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
    G.    Jabber Version

    Answer: ABC

    A user reports that when they receive a voicemail on their phone, they do not receive it in their email as well.
    Which feature on Cisco Unity Connection should be checked?

    A.    Cisco Unified Messaging Service
    B.    Enterprise Parameters
    C.    Roles
    D.    Message Waiting Indicators
    E.    Alternate MWI

    Answer: A

    Many users report that there is a delay in receiving MWI notifications for voicemails.
    Which two issues can cause this problem? (Choose two.)

    A.    The Connection Notifier service has been stopped.
    B.    Voicemail ports are not configured for MWI requests.
    C.    The MWI functionality for the port groups has been disabled.
    D.    Not enough MWI assigned ports are available.
    E.    MWIs are in the process of synchronizing with the phone system.

    Answer: DE

    Users report volume issues with recordings in Cisco Unity Connection.
    Which feature can be disabled to prohibit automatic volume adjustments to recordings?

    A.    AGC
    B.    Noise Reduction
    C.    Audio Normalization
    D.    VAD

    Answer: A

    Which option allows an engineer to deploy new firmware to a single phone, while reducing possible impact?

    A.    Define a new firmware load on specific device. Save configuration and reset individual device.
    B.    Define load in device defaults. Reset Device Pool.
    C.    Upload firmware to TFTP server. Restart TFTP service.
    D.    Enable Peer Firmware Sharing.

    Answer: A

    Which two layers are Cisco Unified Communications component layers? (Choose two.)

    A.    Infrastructure layer
    B.    Data link layer
    C.    Network layer
    D.    Endpoints layer
    E.    Transport layer

    Answer: AD

    Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)

    A.    video-enabled messaging through converged networks
    B.    text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
    C.    voice-enabled message navigation
    D.    voice-enabled dialing to external users
    E.    automated attendant capabilities
    F.    automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast

    Answer: BCE

    An SCCP IP phone places a call to a SIP phone that is registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
    During the active call, call waiting indicates a second call is incoming to the handset, but the user decides to ignore it.
    In this scenario, what is the combined total number of signaling conversations and media flows that used the SCCP phone as an endpoint?

    A.    2
    B.    3
    C.    4
    D.    5
    E.    6

    Answer: B

    Which port is the default port for SCCP call signaling on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

    A.    2000
    B.    2443
    C.    5060
    D.    5061

    Answer: A

    Which three choices are required for the boot process for a Cisco IP phone? (Choose three.)

    A.    TFTP services
    B.    DHCP services
    C.    Voice VLAN
    D.    Routing protocol
    E.    TCP/IP
    F.    PortFast

    Answer: ABC

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    After installing a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller using the default settings, how often will the RRM update occur?

    A.    30 seconds
    B.    60 seconds
    C.    300 seconds
    D.    600 seconds
    E.    3600 seconds
    F.    7200 seconds (more…)

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    WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy.
    Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?

    A.    security
    B.    static versus dynamic routing
    C.    bandwidth
    D.    QoS
    E.    latency (more…)

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    What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?

    A.    3
    B.    4
    C.    5
    D.    6

    Answer: A

    Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?


    Answer: B

    Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)


    A.    regular fromat WWNs are being used
    B.    the command show flogl database was run
    C.    the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
    D.    registered name formate WWNs are being used
    E.    extended format WWNs are being used.

    Answer: BE

    A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets.
    Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?

    A.    zoning
    B.    port security
    C.    LUN masking
    D.    VSANs

    Answer: D

    Which device does a network engineer use to break the network environment into smaller collision domains?

    A.    switch
    B.    router
    C.    hub
    D.    repeater
    E.    CSU/DSU

    Answer: A

    An engineer must copy a new configuration to a Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch from a TFTP server.
    Which two commands should be used to retain the configuration after a reboot? (Choose two.)

    A.    write memory
    B.    copy running-config startup-config
    C.    copy tftp:// running-config
    D.    copy tftp:// startup-config
    E.    write erase

    Answer: BC

    At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated?

    A.    transport
    B.    data-link
    C.    presentation
    D.    application

    Answer: A

    Which two hosts are part of subnet (Choose two.)


    Answer: AC

    Which command should be used to determine which hosts are Fibre Channel targets?

    A.    MDS-A# show host database
    B.    MDS-A# show flogi database
    C.    MDS-A# show fens database
    D.    MDS-A# show host-id

    Answer: C

    Which two options are benefits of deploying FCoE beyond the access layer?

    A.    higher throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches.
    B.    FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.
    C.    reduction in equipment requirements.
    D.    improved security compared to traditional Fibre Channel.
    E.    increased application support.

    Answer: AC

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    Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)

    A.    Public Cloud
    B.    Hybrid Cloud
    C.    Open Cloud
    D.    Private Cloud
    E.    Stack Cloud
    F.    Distributed Cloud (more…)

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    Which option can be addressed when using retrospective security techniques?

    A.    if the affected host needs a software update
    B.    how the malware entered our network
    C.    why the malware is still in our network
    D.    if the affected system needs replacement

    Answer: B

    Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component?

    A.    local
    B.    physical
    C.    network
    D.    adjacent

    Answer: B

    Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?

    A.    snooping
    B.    hacking
    C.    theft
    D.    assault

    Answer: B

    In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)

    A.    determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
    B.    ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
    C.    identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
    D.    determining what and how much data may have been affected
    E.    identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident

    Answer: DE

    Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?

    A.    col[0-9]+our
    B.    colo?ur
    C.    colou?r
    D.    ]a-z]{7}

    Answer: C

    Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?

    A.    direct
    B.    corroborative
    C.    indirect
    D.    circumstantial
    E.    textual

    Answer: A

    You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?

    A.    delivery
    B.    reconnaissance
    C.    action on objectives
    D.    installation
    E.    exploitation

    Answer: A

    Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?

    A.    rx
    B.    regeegex
    C.    r(ege)x
    D.    rege+x

    Answer: B

    Which statement about threat actors is true?

    A.    They are any company assets that are threatened.
    B.    They are any assets that are threatened.
    C.    They are perpetrators of attacks.
    D.    They are victims of attacks.

    Answer: C

    Which data element must be protected with regards to PCI?

    A.    past health condition
    B.    geographic location
    C.    full name
    D.    recent payment amount

    Answer: C

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    Which definition of a process in Windows is true?

    A.    running program
    B.    unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application
    C.    database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications
    D.    basic unit to which the operating system allocates processor time (more…)

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    Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

    A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
    B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
    C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
    D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center. (more…)

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