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  • [May 2018] New Lead2pass Cisco 300-209 New Questions Free Download 319q

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    QUESTION 31
    A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?

    A.    HTTPS
    B.    NetBIOS
    C.    CIFS
    D.    HTTP

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 32
    You are configuring a Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway to operate with DVTI support. Which command must you configure on the virtual template?

    A.    tunnel protection ipsec
    B.    ip virtual-reassembly
    C.    tunnel mode ipsec
    D.    ip unnumbered

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 33
    Which protocol supports high availability in a Cisco IOS SSL VPN environment?

    A.    HSRP
    B.    VRRP
    C.    GLBP
    D.    IRDP

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 34
    When you configure IPsec VPN High Availability Enhancements, which technology does Cisco recommend that you enable to make reconvergence faster?

    A.    EOT
    B.    IP SLAs
    C.    periodic IKE keepalives
    D.    VPN fast detection

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 35
    Which hash algorithm is required to protect classified information?

    A.    MD5
    B.    SHA-1
    C.    SHA-256
    D.    SHA-384

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 36
    Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?

    A.    HIPPA DES
    B.    AES-128
    C.    RC4-128
    D.    AES-256

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 37
    Which Cisco firewall platform supports Cisco NGE?

    A.    FWSM
    B.    Cisco ASA 5505
    C.    Cisco ASA 5580
    D.    Cisco ASA 5525-X

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 38
    Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE?

    A.    3DES
    B.    AES
    C.    DES
    D.    RSA

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 39
    Which encryption and authentication algorithms does Cisco recommend when deploying a Cisco NGE supported VPN solution?

    A.    AES-GCM and SHA-2
    B.    3DES and DH
    C.    AES-CBC and SHA-1
    D.    3DES and SHA-1

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 40
    An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to 209.165.201.0/27 and 209.165.202.128/27?

    A.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
    split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
    split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
    B.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
    split-tunnel-policy tunnelall
    split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
    C.    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
    group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
    split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
    split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224
    D.    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    access-list splitlist standard permit 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224 !
    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-network-list splitlist
    E.    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
    crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224
    crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2 209.165.202.128 255.255.255.224

    Answer: A

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    QUESTION 31
    Which three components comprise the Cisco ISE profiler? (Choose three.)

    A.    the sensor, which contains one or more probes
    B.    the probe manager
    C.    a monitoring tool that connects to the Cisco ISE
    D.    the trigger, which activates ACLs
    E.    an analyzer, which uses configured policies to evaluate endpoints
    F.    a remitter tool, which fails over to redundant profilers (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    Where in the Cisco ASA appliance CLI are Active/Active Failover configuration parameters configured?

    A.    admin context
    B.    customer context
    C.    system execution space
    D.    within the system execution space and admin context
    E.    within each customer context and admin context

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 32
    Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary protocols?

    A.    network
    B.    ICMP
    C.    protocol
    D.    TCP-UDP
    E.    service

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 33
    Which Cisco ASA show command groups the xlates and connections information together in its output?

    A.    show conn
    B.    show conn detail
    C.    show xlate
    D.    show asp
    E.    show local-host

    Answer: E

    QUESTION 34
    When a Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode, within which configuration are the interfaces allocated to the security contexts?

    A.    each security context
    B.    system configuration
    C.    admin context (context with the “admin” role)
    D.    context startup configuration file (.cfg file)

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 35
    When troubleshooting redundant interface operations on the Cisco ASA, which configuration should be verified?

    A.    The nameif configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
    B.    The MAC address configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
    C.    The active interface is sending periodic hellos to the standby interface.
    D.    The IP address configuration on the logical redundant interface is correct.
    E.    The duplex and speed configuration on the logical redundant interface are correct.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 36
    On the Cisco ASA, where are the Layer 5-7 policy maps applied?

    A.    inside the Layer 3-4 policy map
    B.    inside the Layer 3-4 class map
    C.    inside the Layer 5-7 class map
    D.    inside the Layer 3-4 service policy
    E.    inside the Layer 5-7 service policy

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 37
    A Cisco ASA requires an additional feature license to enable which feature?

    A.    transparent firewall
    B.    cut-thru proxy
    C.    threat detection
    D.    botnet traffic filtering
    E.    TCP normalizer

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 38
    Which four are IPv6 First Hop Security technologies? (Choose four.)

    A.    Send
    B.    Dynamic ARP Inspection
    C.    Router Advertisement Guard
    D.    Neighbor Discovery Inspection
    E.    Traffic Storm Control
    F.    Port Security
    G.    DHCPv6 Guard

    Answer: ACDG

    QUESTION 39
    IPv6 addresses in an organization’s network are assigned using Stateless Address
    Autoconfiguration. What is a security concern of using SLAAC for IPv6 address assignment?

    A.    Man-In-The-Middle attacks or traffic interception using spoofed IPv6 Router Advertisements
    B.    Smurf or amplification attacks using spoofed IPv6 ICMP Neighbor Solicitations
    C.    Denial of service attacks using TCP SYN floods
    D.    Denial of Service attacks using spoofed IPv6 Router Solicitations

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 40
    Which two parameters must be configured before you enable SCP on a router? (Choose two.)

    A.    SSH
    B.    authorization
    C.    ACLs
    D.    NTP
    E.    TACACS+

    Answer: AB

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    QUESTION 81
    For a KVM session to be successful, which two of these need to be done? (Choose two.)

    A.    The Cisco IMC IP address needs to be assigned on the Admin tab.
    B.    The Cisco IMC IP address needs to be in the same subnet as the management IP.
    C.    The Cisco IMC needs to be upgraded to the same version as the UCS Manager.
    D.    The server needs to be fully discovered.

    Answer: AD

    QUESTION 82
    A customer is configuring SAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain.
    The customer notices that pinning is not working and traffic from the vHBA is not passing over the Fibre Channel uplink port. Which of these must be done for pinning to work correctly?

    A.    Include the SAN pin group in a vHBA policy and then include the vHBA policy in the service profile
    that is assigned to that server.
    B.    Include the SAN policy in the Cisco UCS Manager to match with pin groups on the fabric interconnect.
    C.    The customer must have Cisco UCS Manager version 2.0 or above.
    D.    Fibre Channel switch mode needs to be configured first.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 83
    Refer to exhibit. A Cisco UCS admin is troubleshooting an issue with a vNIC not coming up on a blade. When looking at the CLI of the “Fabric Interconnect”,the admin runs this command to view the status of the interface.
    Which option describes a possible reason why the interface is stuck in an “initializing” state?

    831

    A.    The service profile is not applied to a blade.
    B.    The VLANs defined on the vNIC are not defined on a matching uplink port.
    C.    The uplink port is down.
    D.    The QoS policy on the vNIC is invalid.
    E.    The MTU on the vNIC is higher than the MTU configured in the QoS system class.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 84
    Which two options are causes for failure of a Cisco C-Series server that is configured to boot from SAN? (Choose two.)

    A.    The boot LUN ID is not 0.
    B.    The ISCSI target is only available via one via one path through the network.
    C.    C-Series does not support boot from SAN.
    D.    The KVM dongle is attached to the front of the server with a USB stick installed.
    E.    Under the FCoE properties on the vNIC adapter, the FCoE VLAN ID is set to 10.
    F.    The boot table for fc0 has not been configured.

    Answer: DF

    QUESTION 85
    Which command on the Fabric Interconnect displays packet statistics for a given QoS group and MTU size?

    A.    show policy-map interface ethernet x/y
    B.    show queuing interface ethernet x/y
    C.    show interface ethernet x/y
    D.    show class-map type qos
    E.    show interface queuing ethernet x/y

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 86
    A Cisco UCS admin is trying to integrate Cisco UCS Manager with Active Directory Authentication. After the configuration is done, the admin is still unable to log in using LDAP credentials. When running a debug on the Fabric Interconnect, this error is displayed:

    ldap_build_roles_and_locales_from_attr: No attr for usr profile

    Which step was missed in the configuration?

    A.    The LDAP provider was not configured correctly.
    B.    The proper RBAC role(s) were not assigned to the user.
    C.    Cisco UCS Manager 2.1 is required for LDAP integration.
    D.    The “Attribute” field in Cisco UCS was left blank.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 87
    Which three requirements are needed to configure a blade to boot successfully from Fibre Channel? (Choose three.)

    A.    zoning
    B.    LUN masking
    C.    WWPN device alias
    D.    boot from SAN policy
    E.    SAN connectivity policy
    F.    port assignment
    G.    target WWPN needs to be set in the boot from SAN policy

    Answer: ABD

    QUESTION 88
    Which description of a core file is true?

    A.    It is generated by a system failure.
    B.    It is generated by a process failure.
    C.    It is generated by a component failure.
    D.    It is generated by a hardware failure.

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 89
    Which logs are used to troubleshoot hardware failure?

    A.    system event log
    B.    audit log
    C.    accounting log
    D.    gateway logs
    E.    system log

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 90
    A UCS Admin is trying to launch the KVM console but it is failing to launch. All IP Pools for mgmt are configured and the CIMC has an address in UCSM. They SSH to the fabric Interconnect and run an ethanalyzer while issuing a ping from their local PC to the KVM IP address. The ping is successful but they do not see the ICMP requests and replies displayed in the capture. Here is the filter they used:

    FIA(nxos)# ethanalyzer local interface mgmt display-filter icmp limit-captured-frames 0

    What could be the reason pings are not seen in the capture and the KVM is failing to load?

    A.    Java settings are preventing the KVM from loading
    B.    There is a duplicate IP address for that CIMC address
    C.    The switch upstream from the FI has the wrong vlan configured
    D.    The CIMC IP pool is in the same subnet as the Fabric Interconnects mgmt 0 interface

    Answer: B

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    QUESTION 31
    How many links are there between a second-generation IOM (Cisco UCS 2204 or 2208) and a third- generation half-width blade (Cisco UCS B200 M3 or B22 M3) in a Cisco UCS system?

    A.    1
    B.    2
    C.    4
    D.    8

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 32
    Which policy would you change to form a port channel between a Cisco UCS 6248 and a Cisco UCS 2208?

    A.    link aggregation policy
    B.    chassis discovery policy
    C.    IOM connection policy
    D.    link discovery policy

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 33
    The Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects offer a new feature that allows dynamic port allocation for all of the 10 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. What are these ports called?

    A.    universal ports
    B.    flex ports
    C.    unified ports
    D.    converged ports

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 34
    In which situation would you be required to change a Cisco UCS system from end-host mode to switching mode?

    A.    Design requirements call for the use of fabric failover.
    B.    Fabric interconnect is connecting to disjoint Layer 2 networks upstream.
    C.    HSRP routers are directly connected to the fabric interconnect.
    D.    Upstream Cisco Nexus 5000 is configured for vPC.

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 35
    Drag and Drop Question
    Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate Cisco UCS adapter on the right, where the adapter supports that characterishtic.

    351

    Answer:

    352

    QUESTION 36
    Drag and Drop Question
    The Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a Cisco Unified Computing B-Series server provides a number of features. Drag the functionality on the left to the appropriate feature on the right.

    361

    Answer:

    362

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    QUESTION 41
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been operated indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to Isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    On which device is the fault condition located?

    A.    R1
    B.    R2
    C.    R3
    D.    R4
    E.    DSW1
    F.    DSW2
    G.    ASW1
    H.    ASW2

    Answer: G
    Explanation:
    Since the Clients are getting an APIPA we know that DHCP is not working. However, upon closer examination of the ASW1 configuration we can see that the problem is not with DHCP, but the fact that the trunks on the port channels are only allowing VLANs 1-9, when the clients belong to VLAN 10. VLAN 10 is not traversing the trunk on ASW1, so the problem is with the trunk configuration on ASW1.

    QUESTION 42
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    The fault condition is related to which technology?

    A.    NTP
    B.    Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
    C.    Access Vlans
    D.    Port Security
    E.    VLAN ACL / Port ACL
    F.    Switch Virtual Interface

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Since the Clients are getting an APIPA we know that DHCP is not working. However, upon closer examination of the ASW1 configuration we can see that the problem is not with DHCP, but the fact that the trunks on the port channels are only allowing VLANs 1-9, when the clients belong to VLAN 10. VLAN 10 is not traversing the trunk on ASW1, so the problem is with switch to switch connectivity, specifically the trunk configuration on ASW1.

    QUESTION 43
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    What is the solution to the fault condition?

    A.    In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13 command, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
    B.    In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 13, port-channel 23, then configure switchport trunk none allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200 commands.
    C.    In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23 command, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 20,200 commands.
    D.    In Configuration mode, using the interface port-channel 23, port-channel, then configure switchport trunk allowed vlan none followed by switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,200 commands.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    We need to allow VLANs 10 and 200 on the trunks to restore full connectivity. This can be accomplished by issuing the “switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,200” command on the port channels used as trunks in DSW1.

    Ticket 2 : ACCESS VLAN

    Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

    – Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
    – EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
    – OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
    – Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
    – BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
    – HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches

    The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
    This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
    In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
    DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
    R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.
    R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside (209.65.0.0/24) network.
    ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
    NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
    The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
    The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1 and DSW2.
    In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
    DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
    The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
    Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.

    Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and solution.

    Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
    Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
    Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
    Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution

    Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241

    Solution:

    Steps need to follow as below:
    – When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig — — Client will be getting 169.X.X.X.
    – On ASW1 port Fa1/0/ 1 & Fa1/0/2 access port VLAN 10 was assigned which is using IP address 10.2.1.0/24.
    Sh run ——- & check for running config of int fa1/0/1 & fa1/0/2 ====================================================

    431

    ====================================================

    Here we are not able to see access Vlan10 configured for Port Fa1/0/1 & Fa1/0/2 Change required: On ASW1, for configuring Access Vlan under interface fa1/0/1 & 1/0/2 we have to enable command switchport access vlan 10

    QUESTION 44
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    What is the solution to the fault condition?

    A.    R1
    B.    R2
    C.    R3
    D.    R4
    E.    DSW1
    F.    DSW2
    G.    ASW1
    H.    ASW2

    Answer: G
    Explanation:
    The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.

    QUESTION 45
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.

    The fault condition is related to switch technology?

    A.    NTP
    B.    Switch-to-Switch Connectivity
    C.    Loop Prevention
    D.    Access Vlans
    E.    VLAN ACL Port ACL
    F.    Switch Virtual Interface
    G.    Port Security

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.

    QUESTION 46
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    What is the solution to the fault condition?

    A.    In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 ?2, then switchport mode access vlan 10 command.
    B.    In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 ?2, then switchport access mode vlan 10 command.
    C.    In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 ?2, then switchport vlan 10 access command.
    D.    In Configuration mode, using the interface range Fastethernet 1/0/1 ?2, then switchport access vlan 10 command.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The problem here is that VLAN 10 is not configured on the proper interfaces on switch ASW1.

    Ticket 3 : OSPF Authentication

    Topology Overview (Actual Troubleshooting lab design is for below network design)

    – Client Should have IP 10.2.1.3
    – EIGRP 100 is running between switch DSW1 & DSW2
    – OSPF (Process ID 1) is running between R1, R2, R3, R4
    – Network of OSPF is redistributed in EIGRP
    – BGP 65001 is configured on R1 with Webserver cloud AS 65002
    – HSRP is running between DSW1 & DSW2 Switches

    The company has created the test bed shown in the layer 2 and layer 3 topology exhibits.
    This network consists of four routers, two layer 3 switches and two layer 2 switches.
    In the IPv4 layer 3 topology, R1, R2, R3, and R4 are running OSPF with an OSPF process number 1.
    DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running EIGRP with an AS of 10. Redistribution is enabled where necessary.
    R1 is running a BGP AS with a number of 65001. This AS has an eBGP connection to AS 65002 in the ISP’s network. Because the company’s address space is in the private range.
    R1 is also providing NAT translations between the inside (10.1.0.0/16 & 10.2.0.0/16) networks and outside (209.65.0.0/24) network.
    ASW1 and ASW2 are layer 2 switches.
    NTP is enabled on all devices with 209.65.200.226 serving as the master clock source.
    The client workstations receive their IP address and default gateway via R4’s DHCP server.
    The default gateway address of 10.2.1.254 is the IP address of HSRP group 10 which is running on DSW1 and DSW2.
    In the IPv6 layer 3 topology R1, R2, and R3 are running OSPFv3 with an OSPF process number 6.
    DSW1, DSW2 and R4 are running RIPng process name RIP_ZONE.
    The two IPv6 routing domains, OSPF 6 and RIPng are connected via GRE tunnel running over the underlying IPv4 OSPF domain. Redistrution is enabled where necessary.
    Recently the implementation group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ on several implementations. This involved changing the configuration on one or more of the devices. You will be presented with a series of trouble tickets related to issues introduced during these configurations.

    Note: Although trouble tickets have many similar fault indications, each ticket has its own issue and solution.

    Each ticket has 3 sub questions that need to be answered & topology remains same.
    Question-1 Fault is found on which device,
    Question-2 Fault condition is related to,
    Question-3 What exact problem is seen & what needs to be done for solution

    Client is unable to ping IP 209.65.200.241

    Solution:

    Steps need to follow as below:
    – When we check on client 1 & Client 2 desktop we are not receiving DHCP address from R4 Ipconfig —– Client will be receiving IP address 10.2.1.3
    – IP 10.2.1.3 will be able to ping from R4 , R3, R2 but not from R1

    461

    – Check for neighborship of ospf
    sh ip ospf nei —– Only one neighborship is forming with R2 & i.e. with R3
    Since R2 is connected to R1 & R3 with routing protocol ospf than there should be 2 neighbors seen but only one is seen
    – Need to check running config of R2 & R3 for interface
    Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0.12 on R2

    462

    – Sh run ————————– Interface Serial0/0/0/0 on R1

    – Change required: On R1, for IPV4 authentication of OSPF command is missing and required to configure—— ip ospf authentication message-digest

    QUESTION 47
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    On which device is the fault condition located?

    A.    R1
    B.    R2
    C.    R3
    D.    R4
    E.    DSW1
    F.    DSW2
    G.    ASW1
    H.    ASW2

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    As you will see, the problem in this situation is with OSPF on R1. It is missing the “ip ospf authentication message-digest” command on the Serial0/0/0/0.12 interface.

    QUESTION 48
    The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
    Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
    The fault condition is related to which technology?

    A.    BGP
    B.    NTP
    C.    IP NAT
    D.    IPv4 OSPF Routing
    E.    IPv4 OSPF Redistribution
    F.    IPv6 OSPF Routing
    G.    IPv4 layer 3 security

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The problem in this situation is with OSPF on router 1. It is missing the “ip ospf authentication messagedigest” command on the Serial0/0/0/0.12 interface.
    The problem statement tells us that the two routers are not able to become OSPF neighbors.

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    QUESTION 31
    Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?

    A.    switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
    B.    switch# show spanning-tree bridge
    C.    switch# show spanning-tree brief
    D.    switch# show spanning-tree summary
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    QUESTION 21
    Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?

    A.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed.
    Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
    B.    PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed.
    Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
    C.    PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed.
    Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
    D.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed.
    Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpn-cli/vpn-pppoe.html

    QUESTION 22
    Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?

    A.    discover messages
    B.    DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
    C.    traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
    D.    DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst6500/ios/12-2SX/configuration/guide/book/snoodhcp.html

    QUESTION 23
    Refer to the exhibit. Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?

    231

    A.    distribute list 1 out
    B.    distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
    C.    distribute list 2 out
    D.    distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8 networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

    QUESTION 24
    Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit 10.8.0.0/16 ge 24 le 24?

    A.    10.9.1.0/24
    B.    10.8.0.0/24
    C.    10.8.0.0/16
    D.    10.8.0.0/23

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to 24 and less than or equal to 24. This translates to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
    Only the choice of 10.8.0.0.24 matches this.

    QUESTION 25
    Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output.
    Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?

    A.    OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
    B.    The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
    C.    An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
    D.    IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/command/reference/ipv6_book/ipv6_16.html

    QUESTION 26
    After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address.
    Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?

    A.    IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
    B.    The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
    C.    IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
    D.    The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
    E.    IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identify them EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address.
    https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/100566/understanding-ipv6-eui-64-bit-address

    QUESTION 27
    A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?

    A.    Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
    B.    Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
    C.    Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
    D.    All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified Ipv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message. RA messages typically include the following information:
    One or more onlink Ipv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure their Ipv6 addresses
    Lifetime information for each prefix included in the advertisement
    Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be completed
    Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default router)
    Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that it originates
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/ipv6/configuration/guide/12_4t/ipv6_12_4t_book/ip6-addrg_bsc_con.html

    QUESTION 28
    A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the user to open a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions.
    After doing this, the user is able to access company shares.
    Which type of remote access did the engineer enable?

    A.    EZVPN
    B.    IPsec VPN client access
    C.    VPDN client access
    D.    SSL VPN client access

    Answer: D
    Explanation:
    The Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client provides secure SSL connections to the security appliance for remote users. Without a previously installed client, remote users enter the IP address in their browser of an interface configured to accept SSL VPN connections. Unless the security appliance is configured to redirect http:// requests to https://, users must enter the URL in the form https://<address>.
    After entering the URL, the browser connects to that interface and displays the login screen. If the user satisfies the login and authentication, and the security appliance identifies the user as requiring the client, it downloads the client that matches the operating system of the remote computer. After downloading, the client installs and configures itself, establishes a secure SSL connection and either remains or uninstalls itself (depending on the security appliance configuration) when the connection terminates.
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/asa-5500-x-series-next-generation-firewalls/100936-asa8x-split-tunnel-anyconnect-config.html

    QUESTION 29
    Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express Forwarding?

    A.    FlexVPN
    B.    DMVPN
    C.    GETVPN
    D.    Cisco Easy VPN

    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual private network (VPN) supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP and Ipsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for creating a dynamic-mesh VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel end-point peers, including Ipsec (Internet Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially configured to build out a hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes. Using this initial hub- and-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh) without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates the need for any load on the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
    DMVPN is combination of the following technologies:
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dynamic_Multipoint_Virtual_Private_Network

    QUESTION 30
    A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during maintenance windows, as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the network respond accordingly. Which action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?

    A.    Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during maintenance.
    B.    Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
    C.    Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
    D.    Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The standby track command allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group. If the line protocol of the specified interface goes down, the HSRP priority is reduced. This means that another HSRP router with higher priority can become the active router if that router has standby preempt enabled. Loopback interfaces can be tracked, so when this interface is shut down the HSRP priority for that router will be lowered and the other HSRP router will then become the active one.
    http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot-standby-router-protocol-hsrp/13780-6.html

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    QUESTION 41
    Cisco Unified Communications Manager is configured with CAC for a maximum of 10 voice calls.
    Which action routes the 11th call through the PSTN?

    A.    Configure an SIP trunk to the ISR.
    B.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager AAR.
    C.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager RSVP-enabled locations.
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    QUESTION 31
    Which type of IOS Conference bridge requires all users to use the same video format in order to participate in a video conference?

    A.    Ad Hoc Conferencing
    B.    Homogenous Conferencing
    C.    Heterogenous Conferencing
    D.    Guaranteed Audio Video Conferencing
    E.    Meet-Me Conferencing

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 32
    Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogenous conferencing to achieve the required trans- sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)

    A.    PVDM3-256
    B.    PVDM2-256
    C.    PVDM-192
    D.    PVDM3-32
    E.    PVDM3-192
    F.    PVDM2-128

    Answer: AE

    QUESTION 33
    Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?

    A.    Cisco Telepresence Server
    B.    Cisco Telepresence MCU
    C.    Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
    D.    Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
    E.    Cisco Telepresence Conductor

    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    http://www.secureitstore.com/datasheets/Collaboration/Cisco-TelePresence-Conductor_DS.pdf

    QUESTION 34
    What is the maximum number of 1080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?

    A.    48
    B.    180
    C.    720
    D.    800

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 35
    Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?

    A.    $
    B.    !
    C.    #
    D.    .

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 36
    When a call is attempted during a particular time of day, what determines the partitions where calling devices search?

    A.    time schedules
    B.    calling periods
    C.    dial schedules
    D.    time periods

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 37
    When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?

    A.    call classification
    B.    call location
    C.    device pool
    D.    signaling port

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 38
    When local route groups are used and a user dials 918005551212, what component is ultimately used to route the digits to the local gateway?

    A.    The route list applied to the route pattern
    B.    The device pool of the calling device
    C.    The translation pattern
    D.    The gateway or route list associated with the +.! route pattern

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 39
    You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls.
    What should you use?

    A.    calling extension expansion
    B.    called number expansion
    C.    external number mask of the called party
    D.    external phone number mask of the calling party

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 40
    The CSS on a line includes the partitions 911, internal and local. The CSS on the device includes the partitions 911, internal, local and long distance. Which CSS will be used if the phone user dials a local number?

    A.    The device CSS will be used since the device CSS is always used first on an IP phone.
    B.    Since the dialed digits are a match to a partition is in both Calling Search Spaces the call will use both matched partitions in both Calling Search Spaces in a round-robin format.
    C.    If there is both a line and device CSS the line device will only be used.
    D.    The line and device CSSs will be combined and the device CSS will take precedence.
    E.    The line and device CSSs will be combined and the line CSS will take precedence.

    Answer: E

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    QUESTION 31
    After several passes with a malware removal program, the program keeps detecting the same malware infection after a reboot. Which of the following should be done to attempt to remove the offending malware?

    A.    Run the malware removal program while disconnected from the Internet
    B.    Run the malware removal program in Windows Safe Mode
    C.    Reinstall the malware removal program from a trusted source
    D.    Set the malware removal program to run each time the computer is rebooted

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    QUESTION 31
    A customer has purchased a 1TB internal hard drive. The customer would like to have it installed as a data drive in their existing system. The technician discovers there is no spare power supply connector for the new hard drive. Which of the following would enable the technician to EASILY accomplish the task? (Select TWO).

    A.    Replace the existing hard drive.
    B.    Replace the power supply.
    C.    Remove the floppy disk.
    D.    Remove the CD-ROM.
    E.    Split an existing power connection.

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    QUESTION 31
    A clientless SSL VPN user who is connecting on a Windows Vista computer is missing the menu option for Remote Desktop Protocol on the portal web page.
    Which action should you take to begin troubleshooting?

    A.    Ensure that the RDP2 plug-in is installed on the VPN gateway
    B.    Reboot the VPN gateway
    C.    Instruct the user to reconnect to the VPN gateway
    D.    Ensure that the RDP plug-in is installed on the VPN gateway

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    QUESTION 21
    Which CLI command can be used to reset the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 personal video system to a factory condition?

    A.    utils factory reset 2
    B.    utils system factory init
    C.    xcommand defaultvalues set level: 2
    D.    xconfiguration default factory
    E.    utils reset factory
    F.    xcommand SystemUnit FactoryReset

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 22
    The C-Series endpoint (codec) does not register with the Video Communication Server that is located in a different network. Based on the exhibits, what could be causing the issue?

    221

    222

    223

    224

    A.    The subnet mask on the codec is incorrect.
    B.    The ip address of the codec is incorrect.
    C.    The interface that the codec is in is in the wrong VLAN.
    D.    The codec did not receive a DHCP address from the DHCP server.

    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    The subnet mask configured on the codec is 255.255.255.128, when it should be 255.255.255.0.

    QUESTION 23
    Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)

    A.    automatic software update and release keys
    B.    intelligent call routing engine
    C.    provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
    D.    tracing SIP and H.323 calls
    E.    managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
    F.    rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications
    Server

    Answer: ABF

    QUESTION 24
    Refer to the exhibit. Which system tab can be used to add video infrastructure devices and endpoints?

    241

    A.    Navigator
    B.    System Overview
    C.    Configuration Templates
    D.    Provisioning
    E.    Administrative Tools

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 25
    Which two layout or switching modes are supported with the Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch? (Choose two.)

    A.    enhanced continuous presence
    B.    active speaker switching
    C.    continuous presence
    D.    speaker switching
    E.    room switching
    F.    active continuous presence

    Answer: DE

    QUESTION 26
    Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?

    A.    enhanced continuous presence
    B.    active speaker
    C.    continuous presence
    D.    room switching
    E.    speaker switching

    Answer: A

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    QUESTION 21
    An end user is unable to sign into Jabber.
    Assuming that network connectivity has been verified, which three settings for the end user should be checked? (Choose three.)

    A.    Jabber Advanced Settings
    B.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service Profile
    C.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Management
    D.    Cisco Unified Presence Server Advanced Settings
    E.    Cisco Unified Presence Server Application Listener
    F.    Cisco Unified Presence Server System Topology
    G.    Jabber Version

    Answer: ABC

    QUESTION 22
    A user reports that when they receive a voicemail on their phone, they do not receive it in their email as well.
    Which feature on Cisco Unity Connection should be checked?

    A.    Cisco Unified Messaging Service
    B.    Enterprise Parameters
    C.    Roles
    D.    Message Waiting Indicators
    E.    Alternate MWI

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 23
    Many users report that there is a delay in receiving MWI notifications for voicemails.
    Which two issues can cause this problem? (Choose two.)

    A.    The Connection Notifier service has been stopped.
    B.    Voicemail ports are not configured for MWI requests.
    C.    The MWI functionality for the port groups has been disabled.
    D.    Not enough MWI assigned ports are available.
    E.    MWIs are in the process of synchronizing with the phone system.

    Answer: DE

    QUESTION 24
    Users report volume issues with recordings in Cisco Unity Connection.
    Which feature can be disabled to prohibit automatic volume adjustments to recordings?

    A.    AGC
    B.    Noise Reduction
    C.    Audio Normalization
    D.    VAD

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 25
    Which option allows an engineer to deploy new firmware to a single phone, while reducing possible impact?

    A.    Define a new firmware load on specific device. Save configuration and reset individual device.
    B.    Define load in device defaults. Reset Device Pool.
    C.    Upload firmware to TFTP server. Restart TFTP service.
    D.    Enable Peer Firmware Sharing.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 26
    Which two layers are Cisco Unified Communications component layers? (Choose two.)

    A.    Infrastructure layer
    B.    Data link layer
    C.    Network layer
    D.    Endpoints layer
    E.    Transport layer

    Answer: AD

    QUESTION 27
    Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)

    A.    video-enabled messaging through converged networks
    B.    text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
    C.    voice-enabled message navigation
    D.    voice-enabled dialing to external users
    E.    automated attendant capabilities
    F.    automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast

    Answer: BCE

    QUESTION 28
    An SCCP IP phone places a call to a SIP phone that is registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
    During the active call, call waiting indicates a second call is incoming to the handset, but the user decides to ignore it.
    In this scenario, what is the combined total number of signaling conversations and media flows that used the SCCP phone as an endpoint?

    A.    2
    B.    3
    C.    4
    D.    5
    E.    6

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 29
    Which port is the default port for SCCP call signaling on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

    A.    2000
    B.    2443
    C.    5060
    D.    5061

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 30
    Which three choices are required for the boot process for a Cisco IP phone? (Choose three.)

    A.    TFTP services
    B.    DHCP services
    C.    Voice VLAN
    D.    Routing protocol
    E.    TCP/IP
    F.    PortFast

    Answer: ABC

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    QUESTION 31
    After installing a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller using the default settings, how often will the RRM update occur?

    A.    30 seconds
    B.    60 seconds
    C.    300 seconds
    D.    600 seconds
    E.    3600 seconds
    F.    7200 seconds (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    WAN backup over the Internet is often used to provide primary connection redundancy.
    Which is the most important consideration when passing corporate traffic over the public Internet?

    A.    security
    B.    static versus dynamic routing
    C.    bandwidth
    D.    QoS
    E.    latency (more…)

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    QUESTION 31
    What is the minimum number of fabric modules that should be installed in the Cisco Ne*js 7000 chassis for N 1 redundancy using Ml-Series line card?

    A.    3
    B.    4
    C.    5
    D.    6

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 32
    Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?

    A.    172.23.175.210/15
    B.    10.100.74.127/25
    C.    192.168.73.223/29
    D.    10.230.33.15/28

    Answer: B

    QUESTION 33
    Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be mode based upon the output? (Choose two.)

    331

    A.    regular fromat WWNs are being used
    B.    the command show flogl database was run
    C.    the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run
    D.    registered name formate WWNs are being used
    E.    extended format WWNs are being used.

    Answer: BE

    QUESTION 34
    A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets.
    Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?

    A.    zoning
    B.    port security
    C.    LUN masking
    D.    VSANs

    Answer: D

    QUESTION 35
    Which device does a network engineer use to break the network environment into smaller collision domains?

    A.    switch
    B.    router
    C.    hub
    D.    repeater
    E.    CSU/DSU

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 36
    An engineer must copy a new configuration to a Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch from a TFTP server.
    Which two commands should be used to retain the configuration after a reboot? (Choose two.)

    A.    write memory
    B.    copy running-config startup-config
    C.    copy tftp://10.10.1.1/my-config running-config
    D.    copy tftp://10.10.1.1/my-config startup-config
    E.    write erase

    Answer: BC

    QUESTION 37
    At which layer of the OSI Model is TCP traffic encapsulated?

    A.    transport
    B.    data-link
    C.    presentation
    D.    application

    Answer: A

    QUESTION 38
    Which two hosts are part of subnet 172.16.160.0/20? (Choose two.)

    A.    172.16.168.0
    B.    172.16.176.1
    C.    172.16.160.255
    D.    172.16.160.0
    E.    172.16.176.255

    Answer: AC

    QUESTION 39
    Which command should be used to determine which hosts are Fibre Channel targets?

    A.    MDS-A# show host database
    B.    MDS-A# show flogi database
    C.    MDS-A# show fens database
    D.    MDS-A# show host-id

    Answer: C

    QUESTION 40
    Which two options are benefits of deploying FCoE beyond the access layer?

    A.    higher throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches.
    B.    FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.
    C.    reduction in equipment requirements.
    D.    improved security compared to traditional Fibre Channel.
    E.    increased application support.

    Answer: AC

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